US Amateur Radio - Technician (Element 2, 2022-2026) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - Technician (Element 2, 2022-2026) Practice Test

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1. - T0A11

What hazard exists in a power supply immediately after turning it off?

Select	Answer
A	Leakage flux in the power transformer
B	Charge stored in filter capacitors
C	Circulating currents in the dc filter
D	Voltage transients from kickback diodes

2. - T0B09

Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines
C	The 60 Hz radiations from the feed line may increase the SWR
D	The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages

3. - T0C09

How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By re-evaluating the station whenever an item in the transmitter or antenna system is changed
B	By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
C	By making sure your antennas have low SWR
D	All these choices are correct

4. - T1A10

What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?

Select	Answer
A	A radio service using amateur frequencies for emergency management or civil defense communications
B	A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications
C	An emergency service using amateur operators certified by a civil defense organization as being enrolled in that organization
D	All these choices are correct

5. - T1B04

Which amateur band includes 146.52 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2 meters
B	20 meters
C	70 centimeters
D	6 meters

6. - T1C09

What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?

Select	Answer
A	Three years
B	Ten years
C	Five years
D	Two years

7. - T1D04

Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

Select	Answer
A	When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz
B	When the music produces no spurious emissions
C	When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications
D	When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour

8. - T1E04

What determines the transmitting frequency privileges of an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises
B	The frequencies printed on the license grant
C	The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator
D	The class of operator license held by the control operator

9. - T1F06

Which of the following self-assigned indicators are acceptable when using a phone transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	KL7CC slash W3
C	KL7CC slant W3
D	KL7CC stroke W3

10. - T2A06

Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Identify the transmitting station
C	Notify the FCC of the transmissions
D	Conduct tests only between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. local time

11. - T2B06

What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?

Select	Answer
A	D-STAR
B	GPRS
C	CTCSS
D	DTMF

12. - T2C07

Which of the following is standard practice when you participate in a net?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unless you are reporting an emergency, transmit only when directed by the net control station
C	Record the time of each of your transmissions
D	When first responding to the net control station, transmit your call sign, name, and address as in the FCC database

13. - T3A11

Which region of the atmosphere can refract or bend HF and VHF radio waves?

Select	Answer
A	The troposphere
B	The mesosphere
C	The ionosphere
D	The stratosphere

14. - T3B06

What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

Select	Answer
A	Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300
B	Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300
C	Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz
D	Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300

15. - T3C07

What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

Select	Answer
A	6 meters
B	2 meters
C	70 centimeters
D	33 centimeters

16. - T4A01

Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50 watt output mobile FM transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	13.8 volts at 4 amperes
B	13.8 volts at 12 amperes
C	24.0 volts at 12 amperes
D	24.0 volts at 4 amperes

17. - T4B09

How is a specific group of stations selected on a digital voice transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	By retrieving the frequencies from transceiver memory
B	By entering the group’s identification code
C	By enabling the group’s CTCSS tone
D	By activating automatic identification

18. - T5A10

Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

Select	Answer
A	Power
B	Resistance
C	Voltage
D	Current

19. - T5B13

Which is equal to 2425 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.002425 GHz
B	2.425 GHz
C	24.25 GHz
D	2425 GHz

20. - T5C09

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	138 watts
B	23.8 watts
C	3.8 watts
D	0.7 watts

21. - T5D09

What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

Select	Answer
A	216 amperes
B	0.1 amperes
C	24,000 amperes
D	10 amperes

22. - T6A07

What electrical component is typically constructed as a coil of wire?

Select	Answer
A	Diode
B	Switch
C	Capacitor
D	Inductor

23. - T6B11

What is the term that describes a device's ability to amplify a signal?

Select	Answer
A	Forward resistance
B	On resistance
C	Forward voltage drop
D	Gain

24. - T6C12

Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?

Select	Answer
A	Physical appearance of components
B	All these choices are correct
C	Component connections
D	Wire lengths

25. - T6D04

Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

Select	Answer
A	Potentiometer
B	Meter
C	Relay
D	Transistor

26. - T7A08

Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

Select	Answer
A	Low-pass filtering
B	Modulation
C	Oscillation
D	Impedance matching

27. - T7B03

Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics
B	Spurious emissions
C	Fundamental overload
D	All these choices are correct

28. - T7C04

What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Zero
B	50:50
C	1:1
D	Full Scale

29. - T7D09

What is the characteristic appearance of a cold tin-lead solder joint?

Select	Answer
A	A bright or shiny surface
B	A rough or lumpy surface
C	Excessive solder
D	Dark black spots

30. - T8A02

What type of modulation is commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	PSK
B	AM
C	SSB
D	FM or PM

31. - T8B10

What is a LEO satellite?

Select	Answer
A	A satellite in low energy operation mode
B	A highly elliptical orbit satellite
C	A sun synchronous satellite
D	A satellite in low earth orbit

32. - T8C08

What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

Select	Answer
A	A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the internet
B	A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio
C	A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations
D	A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)

33. - T8D10

Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT-X software suite?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Weak signal propagation beacons
C	Earth-Moon-Earth
D	Meteor scatter

34. - T9A02

Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?

Select	Answer
A	Strengthening the radiating elements of a beam antenna to better resist wind damage
B	Installing a spring in the base of a mobile vertical antenna to make it more flexible
C	Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
D	Electrically lengthening by inserting inductors in radiating elements

35. - T9B01

What is a benefit of low SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Less antenna wear
B	Reduced signal loss
C	Reduced television interference
D	All these choices are correct