US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 12
C	AWG number 20
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The control operator
C	The IEEE
D	The FCC

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
C	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	I have received and understood
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	Send slower

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Along the gray line
D	Toward the north

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Check the A-index
C	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
D	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Radio wave propagation
C	Standing wave ratio
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Bond equipment enclosures together
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	B
C	X
D	Z

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	3.3 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Saturation and cutoff
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class A
C	Class AB
D	Class B

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	Demodulator stage bandwidth

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase transformation
C	Phase inversion
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The checksum overflows
C	Packets will be routed incorrectly
D	The connection is dropped

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower ground losses
B	Lower feed point impedance
C	Shorter radials
D	Lower radiation resistance

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	All these choices are correct
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner