US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	60 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They are not permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS output from the transmitter
B	RMS input to the antenna
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Attenuator level
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The E region
C	The D region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A pronounced peak
C	A pronounced dip
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Higher precision
C	Faster response
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	25.9 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	20.6 percent

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	67 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
D	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	All these choices are correct
C	Large values of inductance may be obtained
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Return loss
B	Q
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency inversion
B	Heterodyning
C	Synthesizing
D	Phase inversion

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
C	The signal is 3 dB over S9
D	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower ground losses
D	Lower radiation resistance

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be fed with open wire line