US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	All these choices are correct
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	1500 watts PEP
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	There is no age limit
C	21 years
D	16 years

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	All these choices are correct
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-45
B	Gateway
C	Terminal Node Controller
D	Printer/Server

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the critical frequency
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A pronounced peak
C	No change will be observed
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Faster response
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Excess intermodulation products
C	Excessive background noise
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	2120 watts
C	1060 watts
D	530 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	150 ohms
C	67 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class C
C	Class B
D	Class AB

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Filter
C	Carrier oscillator
D	RF amplifier

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
B	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
C	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	PSK31
B	SSB-SC
C	WSPR
D	MFSK16

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D	As high as possible above the ground

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Inverted L
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted V

Figure G7-1