US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	12 meters
C	30 meters
D	60 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	All these choices are correct
D	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Operating full break-in
C	Closing station now
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Scatter
C	Faraday rotation
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When high precision is desired
D	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	X
C	Y
D	Z

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	625 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Low power consumption
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Volumetric
C	Viterbi
D	Binary

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	1:1
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	11 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1/4 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C	Polarization diversity
D	Harmonic suppression