US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	In series with each ground lead
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
D	At the closest power pole ground electrode

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	USB
C	SSB
D	DSB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	Poor propagation at any time of day
B	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
D	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path
C	Chordal hop
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce harmonic radiation
B	To increase overall efficiency
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To prevent excessive drive

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Antenna and feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce radiation resistance
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Mutual inductance
D	Mutual capacitance

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	50 MHz
C	40 GHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Inherently more stable
D	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
C	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
D	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and dash
B	Mark and space
C	High and low
D	On and off

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	11 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The spacing of each element along the boom
B	The physical length of the boom
C	All these choices are correct
D	The number of elements on the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground