US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	All these choices are correct
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	General and Technician
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	I am quitting for the day
C	You are sending too fast
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the rising sun
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
C	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
D	Always call on the station’s frequency

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	14 days
C	15 hours to several days
D	28 days

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Short-path
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A pronounced dip
C	A pronounced peak
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass
B	Shunt
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Series-parallel

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	530 watts
C	1060 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 millihenries
B	14.3 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	70 millihenries

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	MMIC
B	Analog
C	Digital
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class A
C	Class AB
D	Class C

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	5F1-3F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	2F1-F2
D	3F1-F2

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Preamble
C	Header
D	Directory

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	4:1
D	1:4

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Polarization diversity
C	Harmonic suppression
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna