US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	Only the ground wire
C	Only the neutral wire
D	All wires

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	All these choices are correct
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
B	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A US operator/primary station license
B	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
C	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	All these choices are correct
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
B	Current and voltage are equal
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	20.6 percent
B	12.2 percent
C	10.9 percent
D	25.9 percent

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is divided by 4
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To increase efficiency

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Overmodulation
B	Insufficient modulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	33 feet
C	24 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high

Figure G7-1