US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
B	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	20 amperes

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The lower frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The IEEE
C	The ITU
D	The FCC

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	All these choices are correct
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is not a US citizen

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	Only at the minimum point
D	At any point

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the critical frequency

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Susceptance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	530 watts
C	1500 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	Low power consumption
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	8 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	16 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	FT8, FT4, and FST4
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	450 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	100 ohms

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Very high
C	Very low
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1