US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	All these choices are correct
C	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	They are not permitted
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Distorted speech
C	Excessive background noise
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.2 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	80 ohms
B	5.9 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	0.17 ohms

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for a given volume
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	8
C	16
D	3

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	Zero
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	101.75 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Request retransmission of the packet
B	Entire file received correctly
C	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
D	Packet was received without error

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	8 feet
C	16 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

Figure G7-1