US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	All these choices are correct
C	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
C	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	1.8 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Listening only for a specific station or stations
B	No US stations should call
C	Closing station now
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
C	To provide emergency and public safety communications
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
B	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Power output from a transmitter
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of the branch currents
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	An inductor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	Its conductivity
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Insertion loss
D	Return loss

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	PSK31
C	SSB-SC
D	WSPR

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Inverted L
C	Inverted V
D	Lazy H

Figure G7-1