US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	All these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	11 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
D	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the remote station’s country
B	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	100 percent copy
C	Key clicks
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	SSB
C	LSB
D	USB

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	15 hours to several days
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To prevent key clicks on CW
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Transmitter
C	Receiver
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Bypass inductor

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	12 dB
C	6 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass
B	Shunt
C	Series-parallel
D	Full-wave bridge

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	67 ohms

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.1 volt
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	Its thickness
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The time delay of the lag circuit
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	Detection
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
B	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Upper case letters are sent with more power
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	1:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	5:1

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	On the same side as the feed point
D	Opposite the feed point