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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
AHigh duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
BA lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
CLow duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
DA higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

SelectAnswer
ATo ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
BTo shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
CTo prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
DTo shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters
B12 meters
C30 meters
D20 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

SelectAnswer
AOn any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
DOn any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AYou must keep a record of all third-party traffic
BYou must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
CYou must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
DIf you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

SelectAnswer
ATechnician only
BGeneral and Technician
CNone, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
DAmateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

SelectAnswer
AOn any band segment where digital operation is permitted
BOnly in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
CAnywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
DAnywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

SelectAnswer
AAny stations outside the lower 48 states
BOnly contest stations
CAny caller is welcome to respond
DOnly stations in Germany

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

SelectAnswer
ASend the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
BListen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
CSend “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
DSend “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

SelectAnswer
AAn operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
BAutomatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
CTransmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
DBreaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

SelectAnswer
AA map that shows accurate land masses
BA map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
CA map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
DA map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
ADSB
BCW
CUSB
DLSB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

SelectAnswer
AIt disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
BIt enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
CNone, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
DIt disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

SelectAnswer
AThe Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
BThe Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
CThe Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
DThe Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

SelectAnswer
AThe F region is unstable during daylight hours
BThe D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
CThe E region is unstable during daylight hours
DThe F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

SelectAnswer
AIncrease power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
BAll these choices are correct
CReduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
DReduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AGeneration of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
BDesensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
CAll these choices are correct
DReceived power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

SelectAnswer
AInsulated wire has been used for the ground wire
BFlat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
CThe ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
DThe ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

SelectAnswer
A12 dB
B18 dB
C6 dB
D15 dB

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

SelectAnswer
AEfficiency of the electrically short antenna
B“Picket fencing”
CThe wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
DFCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AAdmittance
BConductance
CReluctance
DReactance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A0.5 watts
B3200 watts
C400 watts
D200 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A300 ohms
B150 ohms
C75 ohms
D67 ohms

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

SelectAnswer
A0.1 volt
B0.7 volts
C0.3 volts
D1.0 volts

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AIts thickness
BIts conductivity
CThe composition, or “mix,” of materials used
DThe ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

SelectAnswer
AA series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
BA sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
CA steady DC voltage
DA series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThe number of stages in the counter
BThe number of stages in the divider
CThe inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
DThe time delay of the lag circuit

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

SelectAnswer
AAll types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
BThe need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
CAutomatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
DMinimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

SelectAnswer
AReceiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
BThe opposite of fade margin
CThe difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
DTransmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

SelectAnswer
AIt minimizes power consumption in the receiver
BIt is required by FCC rules
CIt improves impedance matching of the antenna
DIt results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

SelectAnswer
AWSPR
BPSK31
CSSB-SC
DMFSK16

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

SelectAnswer
AHigh SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
BHigh SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
CHigh SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
DThere is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces only vertically polarized radiation
BIt must be longer than 1 wavelength
CStation equipment may carry significant RF current
DIt is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
ACloser element spacing
BLarger-diameter elements
CTapered-diameter elements
DLoading coils in series with the element

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

SelectAnswer
ALazy H
BInverted V
CSloper
DInverted L