US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 8
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 20
D	AWG number 12

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	20 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	General and Technician
D	Technician only

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
C	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Operating full break-in
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	No US stations should call

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
B	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
C	A form of Packet Radio
D	All of the above

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	14 days
C	15 hours to several days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
C	The ALC action distorts the signal
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its reactance increases
B	Catastrophic failure is likely
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Fewer circuit components are required
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	All these choices are correct
C	FM
D	SSB

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	All these choices are correct
C	Filtering
D	Modulation

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
C	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	16 kHz
B	8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Request retransmission of the packet
C	Packet was received without error
D	Entire file received correctly

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Ohms per 1,000 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To enable multiband operation