US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	In series with each ground lead
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	3 kHz

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	30 days
C	180 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets have priority
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	100 percent copy
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-45
B	Terminal Node Controller
C	Printer/Server
D	Gateway

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
C	HF communications over the path are enhanced
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	2.00
C	1.00
D	1.414

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	0.30 henries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Reverse biased
C	Forward biased
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Full-wave
D	Synchronous

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To limit the modulation index
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Double-sideband modulated RF
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Image frequency
C	Beat frequency oscillator
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
B	Upper case letters are sent with more power
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	Station equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency