US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	20 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	Technician only
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	All these choices are correct
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	3 kHz to 6 kHz
C	1 kHz to 3 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	KN
C	BK
D	AR

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Always call on the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
C	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Shunt
B	Series-parallel
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Bypass

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	100 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	PL-259
C	BNC
D	Type N

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	50%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Backscatter propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be fed with open wire line