US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	No part
B	Channels 42 through 45
C	Anywhere in the band
D	Channels 1 through 4

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
B	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Shunt
B	Series-parallel
C	Bypass
D	Full-wave bridge

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of the branch currents
B	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	High voltage
C	Long life
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using error detection and correction
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation decreases

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower radiation resistance
B	Lower feed point impedance
C	Shorter radials
D	Lower ground losses

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The spacing of each element along the boom
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The physical length of the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1