US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The IEEE
B	The control operator
C	The FCC
D	The ITU

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
B	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	100 percent copy
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point
B	At any point
C	At the summer solstice
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A wavemeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
B	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
C	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
D	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
C	To reduce radiation resistance
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	A length of transmission line
C	A transformer
D	All these choices are correct

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	300 ohms
C	67 ohms
D	75 ohms

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High stability
C	Tight tolerance
D	High capacitance for given volume

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class A
C	Class B
D	Class AB

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier oscillator
B	RF amplifier
C	IF amplifier
D	Filter

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Excessive bandwidth
C	Insufficient audio
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	432 MHz
B	2.4 GHz
C	10.7 GHz
D	902 MHz

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 1,000 feet
B	Decibels per 100 feet
C	Ohms per 1,000 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Closer element spacing
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Inverted L
C	Lazy H
D	Sloper

Figure G7-1