US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The FCC
C	The IEEE
D	The control operator

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	All these choices are correct
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	All these choices are correct
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ohm
C	Ampere
D	Siemens

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	24 volts
C	34 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	Type N
C	RCA Phono
D	BNC

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An analog mixer
C	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
D	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Demodulator stage bandwidth
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	Amplitude compressed AM
D	8-tone frequency shift keying

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio
B	The average
C	The arithmetic product
D	The sum and difference

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Packet was received without error
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground