US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
B	All these choices are correct
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Zero beat my signal
B	Send more slowly
C	I am troubled by static
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
B	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
C	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
D	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just above the LUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just below the MUF

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1,733 picofarads
B	3,583 picofarads
C	10.750 nanofarads
D	576.9 nanofarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	High capacitance for a given volume

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	4 GHz
B	40 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class AB
C	Class A
D	Class C

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Input amplifier noise figure
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Demodulator stage bandwidth
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase modulation
C	Phase transformation
D	Phase convolution

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Trailer
C	Header
D	Preamble

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	450 ohms
C	100 ohms
D	75 ohms

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1