US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	All these choices are correct
C	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
D	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the station equipment as possible
B	Outside the building
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They are not permitted
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are not encrypted
C	When messages are encrypted
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only digital contacts
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	SK
C	KN
D	BK

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Terminal Node Controller
B	Printer/Server
C	Gateway
D	RJ-45

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
C	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
B	Phone signals have high intelligibility
C	Signals have a fluttering sound
D	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A field strength meter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	5000 watts
B	2500 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	625 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	0.30 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	12 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	6 volts

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To eliminate self-oscillations
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	RF amplifier
C	Carrier oscillator
D	Filter

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation is independent of frequency
B	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation decreases

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	84 feet
C	263 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By extending and retracting the whip