US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
B	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	All these choices are correct
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
D	Only those of the remote station’s country

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	When messages are encrypted
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It provides more power output
D	It occupies less bandwidth

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am ready to receive
C	I am quitting for the day
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
B	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
C	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Linearity

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Bypass inductor
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Forward-biased diode

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 watts
B	Approximately 61 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for a given volume
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	Tight tolerance
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	All these choices are correct

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	Zero
D	90 degrees

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Request retransmission of the packet
B	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
C	Packet was received without error
D	Entire file received correctly

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1