US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	All these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
B	A vertically polarized antenna
C	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
D	A special hardware modem

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	All these choices are correct
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	30 millihenries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High stability
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	100%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Intermodulation
C	Rolloff
D	Detection

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	2:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground