US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 12

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	All these choices are correct
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
B	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
B	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
C	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am ready to receive
C	I am quitting for the day
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Toward the north
C	Along the gray line
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The short path azimuth of a distant station
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents signal overload
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The battery charging system
D	The control computers

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	2500 watts
C	8.75 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	3.3 henries
C	0.30 henries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	6 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	Detection
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
B	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
C	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Volumetric
C	Binary
D	Varicode

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
B	Directional transmitting for low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies

Figure G7-1