US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The IEEE
C	The FCC
D	The ITU

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	56 kilobaud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must be for other licensed amateurs
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C	Only contest stations
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	BK
D	AR

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Received signal strength
C	Impedance
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Farad
C	Ohm
D	Ampere

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The RMS value
C	The peak value
D	The reciprocal of the RMS value

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Capacitive coupling
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	High voltage
C	Long life
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class A
C	Class B
D	Class AB

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	101.75 Hz
C	60 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	FT8
B	AMTOR
C	MFSK32
D	MSK144

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	As high as possible above the ground

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Loading coils in series with the element

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo

Figure G7-1