US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The control operator
C	The FCC
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	10 watts RMS
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say “Breaker Breaker”
C	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	We have worked before
C	Send slower
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To provide emergency and public safety communications
B	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send a NAK code
B	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters and 160 meters
B	60 meters and 40 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Time of day and season
D	Path distance and location

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	Distorted speech
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	Clearly audible speech

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	12 dB
B	18 dB
C	15 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	Current and voltage are equal
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 3 dB
C	Approximately 9 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3,583 picofarads
B	1,733 picofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	10.750 nanofarads

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Tight tolerance
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Much less leakage than any other type

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Mixing products are greatly reduced
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Fewer digital components are required

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
D	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	PSK31
C	WSPR
D	SSB-SC

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Polarization diversity