US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 16
B	AWG number 12
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are not permitted
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	16 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say “Breaker Breaker”
C	Say your call sign once
D	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Increase your power
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The short path azimuth of a distant station
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
C	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	“Picket fencing”
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	Resistance is cancelled
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	5000 watts
C	625 watts
D	2500 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Comparatively low cost
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	High stability

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Q
C	Return loss
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very high
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1