US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
D	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
C	A US operator/primary station license
D	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	It occupies less bandwidth
C	It allows “hands free” operation
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Nets have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
B	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced dip
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two swept frequency tones

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Connect all ground conductors in series
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Bond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Carrier suppression
B	Transmitter power output
C	Received signal strength
D	Impedance

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Current and voltage are equal
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Resistance is cancelled

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual capacitance
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Displacement current coupling
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Intermediate interference
C	Image response
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
D	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:5
C	1:2
D	5:1

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	84 feet
C	263 feet
D	132 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Very low