US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
B	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	60 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Attenuator level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
C	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A special hardware modem
D	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Higher precision
B	Less prone to overload
C	Better for measuring computer circuits
D	Faster response

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual capacitance
B	Mutual inductance
C	Displacement current coupling
D	Capacitive coupling

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	Inexpensive RF capacitor
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward biased
B	Reverse biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Return loss
D	Q

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Even-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Odd-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Trailer
B	Preamble
C	Directory
D	Header

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	450 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	100 ohms

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	Parallel to the antenna element

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
B	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom

Figure G7-1