US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	Outside the building
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	60 meters
C	30 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts RMS
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	No part
B	Channels 42 through 45
C	Anywhere in the band
D	Channels 1 through 4

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
B	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
D	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	SSB
C	LSB
D	DSB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F2 region
B	The D region
C	The E region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	A pronounced dip
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	Standing wave ratio
C	RF interference
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass capacitor
B	Bypass inductor
C	Reverse-biased diode
D	Forward-biased diode

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The control computers
C	The battery charging system
D	The fuel delivery system

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	84.8 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	169.7 volts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Full-wave
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	Carrier oscillator
C	Filter
D	IF amplifier

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient bandwidth

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	FT8
C	AMTOR
D	MSK144

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 100 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Ohms per 1,000 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner