US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	Its power density
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	At the closest power pole ground electrode
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	160 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	50 feet
C	100 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	SK
C	AR
D	KN

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
C	The ALC action distorts the signal
D	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Less prone to overload
C	Higher precision
D	Faster response

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	A transformer
C	A Pi-network
D	A length of transmission line

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 6 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 millihenries
C	3.3 henries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	12 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	8.5 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high when either or both inputs are low

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	Dot and dash
C	On and off
D	High and low

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	As high as possible above the ground
D	At the center of the antenna

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the loop
B	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
C	In the plane of the loop
D	Broadside and in the plane of the loop