US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The ITU
B	The IEEE
C	The control operator
D	The FCC

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I have received and understood
B	Send slower
C	We have worked before
D	We have already confirmed the contact

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
C	A vertically polarized antenna
D	A special hardware modem

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce long delayed echoes
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
D	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
C	Poor propagation at any time of day
D	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The F1 region
C	The D region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	No change will be observed
B	A pronounced dip
C	A pronounced peak
D	A slow, rhythmic oscillation

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	18 dB
B	15 dB
C	12 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and voltage
B	The ratio of voltage to current
C	The product of current and reactance
D	The ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	1500 watts
C	1060 watts
D	530 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Reverse biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	Forward biased

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
B	Only one diode is required
C	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
D	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	11 feet
B	21 feet
C	16 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation