US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
B	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
C	All these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	On any General or Technician class band segment
D	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	1500 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	DSB
C	SSB
D	LSB

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	30 meters and 20 meters
C	80 meters and 160 meters
D	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
B	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
B	Two swept frequency tones
C	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Transmitter power output
C	Received signal strength
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Bypass
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Shunt

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To eliminate self-oscillations
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Relatively high-power output
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	1:2
C	2:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By deploying a capacitance hat
D	By varying its body capacitance