US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	20 amperes
C	25 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The control operator
C	The IEEE
D	The ITU

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
B	Toward the north
C	Along the gray line
D	Toward the rising sun

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
C	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
B	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
C	Poor propagation at any time of day
D	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
D	It improves the frequency response

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Bypass inductor

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A transformer
B	A Pi-network
C	All these choices are correct
D	A length of transmission line

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 11 watts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	7 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	70 millihenries

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	1.0 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It eliminates ground loop current
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Cutoff and rolloff
B	Pole and zero
C	Upper and lower half-power
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	On and off
C	Mark and space
D	Dot and dash

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	They are all the same length
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Broadside to the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point