US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
D	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	LSB
C	USB
D	DSB

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
C	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	A wavemeter
C	A field strength meter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	Severely distorted audio
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Carrier suppression
C	Transmitter power output
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	X
C	B
D	Y

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	84.8 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	40 volts
C	360 volts
D	120 volts

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Digital
C	Analog
D	MMIC

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Insertion loss
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Return loss

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	33 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying its body capacitance
B	By varying the base loading inductance
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By deploying a capacitance hat