US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS output from the transmitter
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	18 years
C	21 years
D	There is no age limit

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
B	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Only contest stations
C	Any caller is welcome to respond
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	QSOs in progress have priority
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I have received and understood
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
B	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
B	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
C	Another name for the American sunspot number
D	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The D region
C	The F2 region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Transmitter power output
C	Carrier suppression
D	Impedance

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	B
C	X
D	Y

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	169.7 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	144 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	Long life
C	High voltage
D	High discharge current

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	High power handling capability
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A steady DC voltage
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
C	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
D	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Insufficient audio

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The sum and difference
B	The arithmetic product
C	The ratio
D	The average

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	21 feet
C	11 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 9 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth