US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the hot wires
C	Only the neutral wire
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	11 meters
B	60 meters
C	12 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	AR
C	SK
D	BK

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	15 hours to several days
C	28 days
D	14 days

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The short path azimuth of a distant station
D	The long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	All these choices are correct
C	Receiver
D	Antenna and feed line

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	A chirpy CW signal
D	Severely distorted audio

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	12 dB
C	15 dB
D	18 dB

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The battery charging system
B	The control computers
C	All these choices are correct
D	The fuel delivery system

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	Current and voltage are equal
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	25.9 percent
B	10.9 percent
C	12.2 percent
D	20.6 percent

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high only when both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	3F1-F2
C	5F1-3F2
D	2F1-F2

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
D	FT8, FT4, and FST4

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Inverted L
C	Lazy H
D	Sloper