US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	17 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	250 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	The third party is not a US citizen
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
D	Say “Breaker Breaker”

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only digital contacts
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	I am quitting for the day
C	You are sending too fast
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	180 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Scatter
C	Short-path
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	A pronounced peak
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	The transmitter balanced mixer output
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 8 times
C	Approximately 2 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network
B	A length of transmission line
C	All these choices are correct
D	A transformer

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	24 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	10.5 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Full-wave
C	Synchronous
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Notch depth
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Rolloff

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
D	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	2F1-F2
C	3F1-F2
D	5F1-3F2

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	1:5
C	2:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of elements on the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground