US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It cools body tissue
C	It causes radiation poisoning
D	It heats body tissue

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Observation of propagation and reception
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	16 years
B	21 years
C	18 years
D	There is no age limit

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
B	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
C	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	RF clipping level
C	Transmit audio or microphone gain
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Operating full break-in
B	No US stations should call
C	Listening only for a specific station or stations
D	Closing station now

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	All these choices are correct
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Path distance and location
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Faraday rotation
C	Short-path
D	Scatter

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To increase overall efficiency
B	To prevent excessive drive
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ohmmeter
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It prevents signal overload

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Susceptance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	25.9 percent
B	12.2 percent
C	20.6 percent
D	10.9 percent

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase efficiency
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	MMIC
C	Analog
D	Digital

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Full-wave
D	Synchronous

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B	An analog mixer
C	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	Zero
C	90 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Intermodulation
C	Rolloff
D	Detection

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	MFSK32
C	FT8
D	AMTOR

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	42 feet
C	132 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization