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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

SelectAnswer
AOnly stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
BAll commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
CAll stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
DOnly stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

SelectAnswer
A20 amperes
B25 amperes
C15 amperes
D30 amperes

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

SelectAnswer
AAmateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
BAmateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
CAmateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
DAmateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
AObservation of propagation and reception
BAutomatic identification of repeaters
CTransmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
DAll these choices are correct

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A2.8 kHz
B3 kHz
C1.8 kHz
D5.6 kHz

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

SelectAnswer
AOnly persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
BAnyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
CAny person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
DAny person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

SelectAnswer
AAnywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
BAnywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
COnly in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
DOn any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

SelectAnswer
AOnly stations in Germany
BAny stations outside the lower 48 states
COnly contest stations
DAny caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

SelectAnswer
A1 kHz to 3 kHz
B150 Hz to 500 Hz
C5 Hz to 50 Hz
D3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

SelectAnswer
AIncrease your power
BSend slower
CRepeat everything twice
DChange frequency

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission using Quick Response Protocol
BRemote piloted model control
CTraffic relay procedure net operation
DLow-power transmit operation

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

SelectAnswer
A170 Hz
B425 Hz
C85 Hz
D850 Hz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

SelectAnswer
AIt enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
BIt disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
CIt disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
DNone, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

SelectAnswer
AThey are refracted back to Earth
BThey are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
CThey pass through the ionosphere
DThey are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

SelectAnswer
AScatter propagation occurs only at night
BThere are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
CSignals have a fluttering sound
DPhone signals have high intelligibility

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AHighest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
BMinimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
CMinimum SWR on the antenna
DDesired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmitter balanced mixer output
BThe local oscillator of the transmitter
CThe attenuated RF output of the transmitter
DAn external RF oscillator

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

SelectAnswer
AThe SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
BYou receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
CYou receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
DAn item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases average power
BIt reduces intermodulation distortion
CIt increases peak power
DIt reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
BTo narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
CTo increase the “Q” of the antenna
DTo reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A8.75 watts
B2500 watts
C5000 watts
D625 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A3.3 henries
B3.3 millihenries
C0.30 henries
D30 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
BThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
CThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction
DThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

SelectAnswer
AMode Modulated Integrated Circuit
BMetal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
CMulti-Mode Integrated Circuit
DMonolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

SelectAnswer
AFull-wave
BHalf-wave
CSynchronous
DFull-wave bridge

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SelectAnswer
AFM
BSSB
CAll these choices are correct
DAM

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

SelectAnswer
AAudio with equalized frequency response
BAudio extracted from the modulation signal
CDouble-sideband modulated RF
DFrequency modulated RF

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe bandwidth of the modulated signal
BThe waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
CThe carrier frequency that contains the signal
DSpurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

SelectAnswer
A3F1-F2
B2F1-F2
CAll these choices are correct
D5F1-3F2

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal is 3 dB over S9
BThe signal is S3 (weak signals)
CThe signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
DThe signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
BThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
CThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
DThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
ABi-directional in azimuth
BOmnidirectional in azimuth
CHemispherical
DIsotropic

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AResonant frequency is lower
BBeamwidth increases
CGain increases
DFront-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

SelectAnswer
AElectrically small loops are omnidirectional
BIn the plane of the loop
CBroadside and in the plane of the loop
DBroadside to the loop