US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	All these choices are correct
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	All these choices are correct
C	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	14250 kHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
B	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	365 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
B	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only contest stations
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Inform your local emergency coordinator
B	Immediately cease all transmissions
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	14 days
B	4 to 8 minutes
C	15 hours to several days
D	28 days

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	The E region is not present
D	The ionospheric region involved is unstable

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
C	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
D	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	“Picket fencing”
D	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	100 watts
C	353.5 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Mixer interference
C	Intermediate interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
C	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1