US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its duty cycle
B	Its frequency
C	Its power density
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	21300 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	They are not permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS output from the transmitter
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	RMS input to the antenna
D	PEP output from the transmitter

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
C	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
D	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are not encrypted
B	When under automatic control
C	When messages are encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	You are sending too fast
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am ready to receive
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Always call on the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
C	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
D	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point
B	Only at the maximum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	At any point

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation near the MUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Radio wave propagation
B	Standing wave ratio
C	RF interference
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	A ground loop
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	15 dB
B	12 dB
C	6 dB
D	18 dB

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	8.75 watts
B	2500 watts
C	625 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A low noise figure VHF connector
D	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The number of stages in the counter
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Return loss
C	Q
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
C	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
D	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Local oscillator
D	RF input

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	902 MHz
B	432 MHz
C	2.4 GHz
D	10.7 GHz

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
C	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
D	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Loading coils in series with the element
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Closer element spacing
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They must be fed with open wire line