US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The entire band

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The ITU
C	The IEEE
D	The FCC

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	DSB
C	USB
D	LSB

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve ground wave propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
B	To prevent key clicks on CW
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Using surge suppressor power outlets
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Bonding all equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	The input voltage is divided by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its reactance increases
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 5
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	AM
C	All these choices are correct
D	FM

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	Filtering
C	Detection
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Inverted V
C	Inverted L
D	Sloper

Figure G7-1