US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It cools body tissue
C	It heats body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	All these choices are correct
D	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	10 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	Technician only
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve ground wave propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced dip
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
B	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	24 watts
B	60 watts
C	6 watts
D	2.4 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
D	The carrier frequency that contains the signal

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Balanced converter
C	Multiplier
D	Mixer

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	10.7 GHz
B	902 MHz
C	2.4 GHz
D	432 MHz

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It is unaffected by the height above ground
C	It steadily decreases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	On the same side as the feed point
C	Opposite the feed point
D	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo