US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	All these choices are correct
C	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	Parallel to the water supply line
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	17 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
D	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am quitting for the day

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
C	All these choices are correct
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point
B	At the summer solstice
C	Only at the minimum point
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Scatter
C	Chordal hop
D	Short-path

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When high precision is desired
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 4 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 1.5 times
D	Approximately 8 times

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
C	Current and voltage are equal
D	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Large values of inductance may be obtained
B	All these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Multiplex modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	RF input
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Hemispherical

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
C	All these choices are correct
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
C	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
D	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

Figure G7-1