US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 20
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
B	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
C	All these choices are correct
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	RMS output from the transmitter
C	PEP output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	1 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	BK
C	KN
D	AR

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Scatter
C	Short-path
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver
B	Transmitter
C	Antenna and feed line
D	All these choices are correct

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It increases peak power
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 9 dB

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Control grid
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Modulation
C	Filtering
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
C	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
D	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	101.75 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	416.7 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
B	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
C	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 100 feet
B	Decibels per 1,000 feet
C	Decibels per 100 feet
D	Ohms per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna