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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2019-2023) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

SelectAnswer
AIts frequency
BIts power density
CAll these choices are correct
DIts duty cycle

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

SelectAnswer
ATo shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
BTo prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
CTo shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
DTo ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A08

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A3560 kHz
B2560 kHz
C3650 kHz
D1855 kHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted?

SelectAnswer
AUnidentified transmissions for test purposes only
BRetransmission of other amateur station signals by any amateur station
CCoded messages of any kind, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
DOccasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S. government stations

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A50 watts PEP output
B200 watts PEP output
CAn effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

SelectAnswer
AThe person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
BThe person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
CNone of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
DThe person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General class or above

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BWhen a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
CWhen using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
DWhen operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
ALess bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
BEase of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
CVery high fidelity voice modulation
DLess subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

SelectAnswer
AChange to a different frequency
BContinue your communication because you were on the frequency first
CImmediately cease all transmissions
DAcknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

SelectAnswer
AWe have already confirmed by card
BWe have worked before
CI acknowledge receipt
DSend slower

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission using Quick Response Protocol
BRemote piloted model control
CTraffic relay procedure net operation
DLow-power transmit operation

12. - G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

SelectAnswer
A3775 - 3825 kHz
B3500 - 3525 kHz
C3570 - 3600 kHz
D3700 - 3750 kHz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on Earth?

SelectAnswer
A4 to 8 minutes
B28 days
C14 days
D20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

SelectAnswer
A12,000 miles
B180 miles
C1,200 miles
D2,500 miles

15. - G3C04

What does the term "critical angle" mean, as used in radio wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
BThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
CThe short path azimuth of a distant station
DThe long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
BTo permit full duplex operation that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
CTo permit monitoring of two different frequencies
DTo facilitate computer interface

17. - G4B09

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

SelectAnswer
AThe radiation resistance of an antenna
BThe radiation pattern of an antenna
CThe presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
DThe presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

SelectAnswer
ANot using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
BUsing a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
CArcing at a poor electrical connection
DLack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A7.175 to 7.178 MHz
B7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C7.178 to 7.181 MHz
D7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

20. - G4E08

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

SelectAnswer
APhotovoltaic conversion
BPhoton emission
CPhoton decomposition
DPhotosynthesis

21. - G5A08

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

SelectAnswer
ATo minimize transmitter power output
BTo maximize the transfer of power
CTo reduce power supply ripple
DTo minimize radiation resistance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 11 watts
BApproximately 11 milliwatts
CApproximately 61 watts
DApproximately 61 milliwatts

23. - G5C05

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

SelectAnswer
A175 ohms
B1500 ohms
C90 ohms
D150 ohms

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?

SelectAnswer
AHigh voltage
BLong life
CRapid recharge
DHigh discharge current

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

SelectAnswer
ABy creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
BIt converts common-mode current to differential mode
CFerrites expel magnetic fields
DBy creating an impedance in the current's path

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

SelectAnswer
ACapacitors and inductors
BTransformers and transducers
CDiodes
DQuartz crystals

27. - G7B01

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

SelectAnswer
ATo cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
BTo limit the modulation index
CTo keep the carrier on frequency
DTo eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

SelectAnswer
A180 degrees
B90 degrees
C45 degrees
DZero

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

SelectAnswer
AInsufficient bandwidth
BFrequency drift
CInsufficient audio
DExcessive bandwidth

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit or connection to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

SelectAnswer
ARolloff
BDetection
CIntermodulation
DHeterodyning

31. - G8C07

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

SelectAnswer
AIt sends the packet back to the transmitting station
BIt requests a change in transmitting protocol
CIt terminates the contact
DIt requests the packet be retransmitted

32. - G9A04

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AOperating an antenna at its resonant frequency
BA difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance
CUsing more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
DFeeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

SelectAnswer
AAs high as possible above the ground
BOn the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
CParallel to the antenna element
DAt the center of the antenna

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

SelectAnswer
ARelative length depends on the frequency of operation
BThe reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
CThe reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
DThey are all the same length

35. - G9D02

What is the feed-point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

SelectAnswer
AVery low
BApproximately 50 ohms
CApproximately 300 ohms
DVery high