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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A03

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

SelectAnswer
A300 kHz to 3 MHz
B30 to 300 MHz
C3 to 30 MHz
D300 to 3000 MHz

2. - E1A01

Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A18.068 MHz
B18.107 MHz
C18.100 MHz
D18.110 MHz

3. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

SelectAnswer
AAny transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
BAn amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
CAn emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
DA signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient

4. - E1C14

How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200 meter or 630 meter band?

SelectAnswer
AOperators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 km of PLC systems using those frequencies
BOperators must not operate until approval is received
COperations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
DOperators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company

5. - E1D01

What is the definition of telemetry?

SelectAnswer
ATwo-way transmissions of data
BOne-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
COne-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
DTwo-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

6. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

SelectAnswer
AThe procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
BEach General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
CThe prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
DThe amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

7. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
BThe equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
CIt was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
DIt was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

8. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify regarding satellite communications?

SelectAnswer
AWhich sideband to use
BThe 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
CFM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
DThe 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

9. - E2B10

What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

SelectAnswer
ATone frequency
BTone amplitude
CSync frequency
DSync amplitude

10. - E2C12

What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

SelectAnswer
AActing as store-and-forward digipeaters
BCustom code plugs for the local trunking systems
CForward error correction and Viterbi codes
DDiscovery and link establishment protocols

11. - E2D04

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

SelectAnswer
AUltrasonics
BBandwidth compressed LORAN
CAPRS
DDoppler shift of beacon signals

12. - E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AMFSK16
B300-baud packet
CPSK31
D170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY

13. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

SelectAnswer
AUrban areas
BBodies of water
CForests
DMountain ranges

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
A80 meters
B20 meters
C10 meters
D6 meters

15. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

SelectAnswer
AIncreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
BHigher levels of solar UV radiation
CAn increase in the critical frequency
DDecreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field

16. - E4A04

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

SelectAnswer
AA square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
BA high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
CA DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
DA frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThere is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
BThe transmitter is not properly neutralized
CThere is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
DThere is more power going into the antenna

18. - E4C05

What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
BThe minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
CThe theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
DThe galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

19. - E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
B146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
C146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
D146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz

20. - E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

SelectAnswer
ADifferential-mode current
BReactive current only
CReturn current
DCommon-mode current

21. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

SelectAnswer
A47.3 kHz
B157.8 Hz
C315.6 Hz
D23.67 kHz

22. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AThe sign is reversed
BIt is unchanged
CIt becomes the reciprocal
DIt is shifted by 90 degrees

23. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
AElliptical coordinates
BMaidenhead grid
CPolar coordinates
DFaraday grid

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

SelectAnswer
APower lost because of capacitor leakage
BPower consumed in circuit Q
CWattless, nonproductive power
DPower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

25. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

SelectAnswer
AAn FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
BAn FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
CAny FET without a channel
DAny FET for which holes are the majority carriers

26. - E6B09

What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

SelectAnswer
AAs an RF detector
BAs a constant current source
CAs a high-voltage rectifier
DAs a constant voltage source

27. - E6C08

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

SelectAnswer
A2
B1
C3
D4

28. - E6D09

What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AFerrite beads
BSteel-core toroids
CButterworth filters
DElectrolytic capacitors

29. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
AAxial lead
BRadial lead
CSurface mount
DTO-220

30. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

SelectAnswer
AA digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
BA device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
CA device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
DA device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

31. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

SelectAnswer
AT flip-flop
BJ-K flip-flop
CMonostable multivibrator
DAstable multivibrator

32. - E7B02

What is a Class D amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AA type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
BA frequency doubling amplifier
CA low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
DAn amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency

33. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

SelectAnswer
AA Butterworth filter
BA Chebyshev filter
CAn active LC filter
DA passive op-amp filter

34. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AOutput voltage multiplied by output current
BVoltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
CInput voltage divided by output current
DInput voltage multiplied by input current

35. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

SelectAnswer
AA balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
BA balanced modulator on the oscillator
CA reactance modulator on the final amplifier
DA reactance modulator on the oscillator

36. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

SelectAnswer
ASoftware is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
BIncoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
CA switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
DIncoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

SelectAnswer
AAn echo caused by a long time delay
BUndesired oscillations added to the desired signal
CA reduction in high frequency response
DPartial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

38. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

SelectAnswer
AWide-band AF and RF power amplification
BPhotovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
CComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
DFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation

39. - E8A09

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

SelectAnswer
A8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
B256
C8
D256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier

40. - E8B10

What is frequency division multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
BTwo or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
CThe transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
DTwo or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

41. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
AThey are the same
BBaud is twice the symbol rate
CBaud is only used for RTTY
DSymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes

42. - E8D08

What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

SelectAnswer
ABaud rate
BSignal-to-noise ratio
CIntermodulation Distortion (IMD)
DRepeat Request Rate (RRR)

43. - E9A03

What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
BThe resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
CThe specific impedance of the antenna
DThe value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

SelectAnswer
A12 dB
B24 dB
C14 dB
D18 dB

45. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an Extended Double Zepp antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA center-fed 1.25-wavelength antenna (two 5/8-wave elements in phase)
BAn end-fed folded dipole antenna
CA portable antenna erected using two push support poles
DA wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing

46. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo lower the losses
BTo cancel capacitive reactance
CTo increase the SWR bandwidth
DTo lower the Q

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A50 ohms
B75 ohms
C62 ohms
D450 ohms

48. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

SelectAnswer
AElectrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
BThe surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
CThe characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
DSkin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

49. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AReassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
BReassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
CReassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
DReassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
AAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
BLow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
CAll these choices are correct
DThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-1