US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A03

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

Select	Answer
A	300 to 3000 MHz
B	3 to 30 MHz
C	30 to 300 MHz
D	300 kHz to 3 MHz

2. - E1A07

What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP
B	5 watts EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
C	1 watt EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
D	100 watts PEP

3. - E1B07

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

Select	Answer
A	FAA tower height limits
B	Use of wireless devices in vehicles
C	Homeowners associations
D	State and local zoning

4. - E1C06

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

Select	Answer
A	The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
B	You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
C	You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
D	You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

5. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
C	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

6. - E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
B	Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
C	Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
D	Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

7. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

8. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

Select	Answer
A	FM and CW
B	PSK and packet
C	All these choices are correct
D	SSB and SSTV

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

Select	Answer
A	To identify the SSTV mode being used
B	To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
C	To provide vertical synchronization
D	To identify the call sign of the station transmitting

10. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

Select	Answer
A	Contacts using tactical call signs
B	Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
C	Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
D	Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.

11. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledgement
B	Disconnect
C	Connect
D	Unnumbered Information

12. - E2E13

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C	PSK31
D	300 baud packet

13. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

Select	Answer
A	1200 miles
B	10 miles to 50 miles
C	100 miles to 300 miles
D	2500 miles

14. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	1000 miles
B	5000 miles
C	7500 miles
D	2500 miles

15. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	Waning sunspot numbers
B	Moderate solar wind
C	Very low solar activity
D	An extreme geomagnetic storm

16. - E4A11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
B	Loosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
C	Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
D	Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna

17. - E4B02

What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

Select	Answer
A	When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
B	When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
C	When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
D	The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will indicate the input impedance of the voltmeter

18. - E4C08

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
B	One-half the maximum sampling buffer size
C	The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
D	One-half the maximum sample rate

19. - E4D07

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
B	Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
C	Raise the receiver IF frequency
D	Increase the receiver front end gain

20. - E4E07

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Use of braided shielding material
B	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
C	Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
D	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield

21. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	23.5 kHz
B	7.12 MHz
C	7.12 kHz
D	23.5 MHz

22. - E5B02

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	G
C	B
D	Y

23. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Elliptical coordinates
B	Faraday grid
C	Polar coordinates
D	Maidenhead grid

24. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

Select	Answer
A	To maintain component lifetime
B	To increase the thermal time constant
C	To avoid unwanted inductive reactance
D	All these choices are correct

25. - E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The change in collector current with respect to base current
B	The switching speed
C	The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
D	The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

26. - E6B09

What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a high-voltage rectifier
B	As a constant current source
C	As a constant voltage source
D	As an RF detector

27. - E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is immune to electrostatic damage
C	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
D	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS

28. - E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
B	Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
C	Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
D	Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

29. - E6E07

What type of transmission line is used for connections to MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Circular waveguide
B	Parallel wire
C	Microstrip
D	Miniature coax

30. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
B	The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
C	The conversion of light to electrical energy
D	The tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light

31. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Positive Logic
B	Reverse Logic
C	Assertive Logic
D	Negative logic

32. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Push-push
C	Class AB
D	Push-pull

33. - E7C10

Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter band repeater duplexer?

Select	Answer
A	A crystal filter
B	A cavity filter
C	An L-C filter
D	A DSP filter

34. - E7D01

How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

Select	Answer
A	It has a ramp voltage as its output
B	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
C	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
D	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
B	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
C	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
D	To produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

36. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

Select	Answer
A	Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
B	Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
C	A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
D	Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

37. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	28
B	0.07
C	14
D	7

38. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
B	The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
C	The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
D	Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform

39. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplifier gain
B	The frequency of the modulating signal
C	The degree of carrier suppression
D	Speech characteristics

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
B	The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
C	The type of modulation used by the transmitter
D	The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency

41. - E8C03

Why should phase-shifting of a PSK signal be done at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	To improve carrier suppression
C	To simplify modulation
D	To minimize bandwidth

42. - E8D08

What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

Select	Answer
A	Baud rate
B	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
C	Signal-to-noise ratio
D	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)

43. - E9A02

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	286 watts
B	78.7 watts
C	420 watts
D	1977 watts

44. - E9B08

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region where radiated field strengths are constant
B	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
C	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
D	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance

45. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

Select	Answer
A	The horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
B	The horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
C	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
D	The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction

46. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
B	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
C	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
D	A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground

47. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma match
B	The epsilon match
C	The stub match
D	The delta match

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.0 meters
B	13.3 meters
C	10.6 meters
D	8.5 meters

49. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and impedance
B	Resistance and voltage
C	Reactance and voltage
D	Resistance and reactance

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls
B	To increase receiver sensitivity
C	To compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
D	To narrow the receiver bandwidth

Figure E7-3