US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
B	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
C	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
D	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field

2. - E1A09

What action or actions should you take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineers office
B	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
C	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
D	All these choices are correct

3. - E1B12

What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 cm band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

Select	Answer
A	File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
B	Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
C	Cease operation or make changes to the repeater to mitigate the interference
D	All these choices are correct

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Select	Answer
A	Messages intended for users of the maritime satellite service
B	Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
C	All these choices are correct
D	Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature

5. - E1D04

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The output power of the balloon transmitter
C	The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
D	Call sign

6. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum passing score of 77%
B	Minimum passing score of 80%
C	Minimum passing score of 70%
D	Minimum passing score of 74%

7. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

Select	Answer
A	A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline
B	A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
C	A line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the U.S. and Mexico
D	A line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the U.S. and Canada

8. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Select	Answer
A	The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
B	The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
C	Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
D	The location of the ground control station

9. - E2B05

Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
B	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
C	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
D	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry

10. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

Select	Answer
A	Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
B	Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
C	Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
D	Contacts using tactical call signs

11. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate station location?

Select	Answer
A	Latitude and longitude
B	Time and frequency
C	Polar coordinates
D	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis

12. - E2E13

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	PSK31
B	300 baud packet
C	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
D	AMTOR

13. - E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	CW
C	FM
D	RTTY

14. - E3B11

At what time of day can sporadic E propagation occur?

Select	Answer
A	Only around sunset
B	Any time
C	Only around sunset and sunrise
D	Only in hours of darkness

15. - E3C03

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic E
B	Transequatorial
C	NVIS
D	Polar

16. - E4A01

Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	Amount of memory
B	Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
C	All these choices are correct
D	Q of the circuit

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
B	50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
C	Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
D	Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms

18. - E4C10

What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver IF bandwidths from which to select?

Select	Answer
A	Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired
B	Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference
C	The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity
D	Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required

19. - E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
B	Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
C	Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
D	Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

20. - E4E01

What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

Select	Answer
A	Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
B	Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
C	Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
D	Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency

21. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	23.5 MHz
B	7.12 MHz
C	23.5 kHz
D	7.12 kHz

22. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B	68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C	14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D	14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C04

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday grid
B	Maidenhead grid
C	Rectangular coordinates
D	Elliptical coordinates

24. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	To increase the thermal time constant
C	To maintain component lifetime
D	To avoid unwanted inductive reactance

25. - E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of static damage to the gate
B	To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
C	To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
D	To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
B	A sub-harmonic pump signal
C	Forward DC bias current
D	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

27. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Bandwidth is very limited
B	Large bypass capacitance is inherent
C	The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
D	The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage

28. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Thermal impedance
B	Reactivity
C	Permeability
D	Resistance

29. - E6E08

How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
B	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
C	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
D	MMICs require no operating bias

30. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

Select	Answer
A	A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
B	A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
C	A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
D	A device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

31. - E7A01

Which circuit is bistable?

Select	Answer
A	A bipolar amplifier
B	A flip-flop
C	An OR gate
D	An AND gate

32. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Self bias
B	Load resistors
C	Voltage divider bias
D	Feedback

33. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a band-pass filter
B	It is a low-pass filter
C	It is a high-pass filter
D	It is a notch filter

34. - E7D01

How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

Select	Answer
A	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
B	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
C	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
D	It has a ramp voltage as its output

35. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
B	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
C	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
D	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal

36. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

Select	Answer
A	Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
B	Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
C	A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
D	Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal

37. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	1000 ohms
B	Very low
C	100 ohms
D	Very high

38. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Select	Answer
A	Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
B	Digital conversion noise
C	Nyquist limit noise
D	Broadband noise

39. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

Select	Answer
A	Improve accuracy by removing out-of-sequence codes from the input
B	Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
C	Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
D	All these choices are correct

40. - E8B09

What is deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
C	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

41. - E8C05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

Select	Answer
A	52 Hz
B	26 Hz
C	13 Hz
D	104 Hz

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
B	High-pass filters at the transmitter output
C	Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
D	Low-pass filters at the transmitter output

43. - E9A02

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	420 watts
B	286 watts
C	1977 watts
D	78.7 watts

44. - E9B10

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

Select	Answer
A	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
B	A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
C	A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
D	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

45. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an Extended Double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles
B	An end-fed folded dipole antenna
C	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
D	A center-fed 1.25-wavelength antenna (two 5/8-wave elements in phase)

46. - E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Select	Answer
A	3 dB
B	4 dB
C	2 dB
D	6 dB

47. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The omega match
B	The gamma match
C	The stub match
D	The delta match

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	13.3 meters
B	8.5 meters
C	7.0 meters
D	10.6 meters

49. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
D	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It has a bidirectional pattern
B	It has no clearly defined null
C	All these choices are correct
D	It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands

Figure E7-1