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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

SelectAnswer
AHearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
BLocalized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
CIngestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
DBlood clotting from the intense magnetic field

2. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operators of all the stations in the system
BThe control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
CThe control operator of the packet bulletin board station
DThe control operator of the originating station

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

SelectAnswer
AA letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
BAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
CA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
DA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

4. - E1C06

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

SelectAnswer
AYou must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
BYou must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
CYou must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
DThe U.S. embassy must approve of your operation

5. - E1D06

What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

SelectAnswer
A1 watt
B2 watts
C5 watts
D100 watts

6. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

SelectAnswer
AFriends of the VE
BAll these choices are correct
CEmployees of the VE
DRelatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules

7. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

SelectAnswer
AA line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the U.S. and Canada
BA line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
CA line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the U.S. and Mexico
DA line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline

8. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

SelectAnswer
AAn isotropic antenna
BA circularly polarized antenna
CA linearly polarized antenna
DA log-periodic dipole array

9. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
ABy scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
BBy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
CBy scanning each field from bottom to top
DBy scanning two fields simultaneously

10. - E2C02

Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting? in connection with HF contest operating?

SelectAnswer
AThe often-prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
BA manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
CThe acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
DAn automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

11. - E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

SelectAnswer
APACTOR
BAX.25
CAMTOR
D802.11

12. - E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

SelectAnswer
ARTTY
BPACTOR
CMT63
DPSK31

13. - E3A06

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

SelectAnswer
AWait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
BSwitch to a lower frequency HF band
CWait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
DSwitch to a higher frequency HF band

14. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
A5000 miles
B7500 miles
C2500 miles
D1000 miles

15. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

SelectAnswer
AModerate solar wind
BVery low solar activity
CWaning sunspot numbers
DAn extreme geomagnetic storm

16. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

SelectAnswer
ACalibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
BExcessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the signal
CAll signals will have a DC offset
DA false, jittery low-frequency version of the signal is displayed

17. - E4B08

Which of the following can be used to measure the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

SelectAnswer
AThe inductance to capacitance ratio
BThe frequency shift
CThe resonant frequency of the circuit
DThe bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response

18. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A-155 dBm
B-148 dBm
C-174 dBm
D-164 dBm

19. - E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
BSpurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
COscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
DCross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

20. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

SelectAnswer
ASignals that appear across a wide bandwidth
BSignals that appear at one IF but not another
CSignals that have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
DSignals that are constant at all IF levels

21. - E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AR/L
BL/R
CMaximum
DMinimum

22. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C01

Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

SelectAnswer
ADelta
B+jX
C-jX
DOmega

24. - E5D08

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A1600 watts
B200 watts
C600 watts
D1000 watts

25. - E6A10

In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

SelectAnswer
A5
B6
C2
D4

26. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AForward DC bias current
BReverse voltage larger than the RF signal
CA sub-harmonic pump signal
DCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

27. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

SelectAnswer
AThe input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
BBandwidth is very limited
CLarge bypass capacitance is inherent
DThe input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage

28. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

SelectAnswer
APermeability
BResistance
CReactivity
DThermal impedance

29. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

SelectAnswer
AControlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
BThe ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
CPlate current that is controlled by a control grid
DNearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

30. - E6F01

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
AElectrons
BProtons
CPhotons
DHoles

31. - E7A01

Which circuit is bistable?

SelectAnswer
AAn OR gate
BA flip-flop
CAn AND gate
DA bipolar amplifier

32. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
ASignal inversion
BReduced intermodulation products
CIncreased overall intelligibility
DSignal distortion and excessive bandwidth

33. - E7C11

Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

SelectAnswer
APassband ripple
BPhase response
CShape factor
DNoise factor

34. - E7D02

What is a characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
BThe controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
CIt gives a ramp voltage at its output
DIt is generally less efficient than a linear regulator

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

SelectAnswer
ATo produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
BTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
CTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
DTo produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

36. - E7F07

What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

SelectAnswer
AConverting analog signals to digital form
BConverting 8-bit data to 16-bit data
CConverting digital signals to analog form
DConverting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain

37. - E7G06

What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AThe gain of the amplifier at a filter's cutoff frequency
BThe frequency at which the amplifier's offset voltage is zero
CThe frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
DThe maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier

38. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough link coupling
BThrough a tapped coil
CThrough a neutralizing capacitor
DThrough a capacitive divider

39. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AFourier analysis
BVector analysis
CDifferential analysis
DNumerical analysis

40. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.6
B1.67
C60
D0.167

41. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

SelectAnswer
AIf errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
BSpecial polynomial codes provide automatic correction
CSpecial binary codes provide automatic correction
DIf errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

42. - E8D06

What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal can overpower interfering signals
BSome types of errors can be detected
CFaster transmission rate
DForeign language characters can be sent

43. - E9A01

What is an isotropic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas
BA grounded antenna used to measure Earth conductivity
CA theoretical, omnidirectional antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
DA spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth

44. - E9B08

What is the far field of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
BThe region where radiated field strengths are constant
CThe region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
DThe region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted

45. - E9C13

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with increasing height above ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases
BThe horizontal beamwidth increases
CThe horizontal beamwidth decreases
DThe takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases

46. - E9D02

How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

SelectAnswer
AArrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
BStack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
CArrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
DStack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

47. - E9E06

Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

SelectAnswer
A450 ohms
B75 ohms
C50 ohms
D62 ohms

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A13.3 meters
B10.6 meters
C7.0 meters
D8.5 meters

49. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

SelectAnswer
AThe voltage axis
BThe current axis
CThe reactance axis
DThe resistance axis

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

SelectAnswer
ATo compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
BTo narrow the receiver bandwidth
CTo increase receiver sensitivity
DTo prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls

Figure E6-1

Figure E9-3