US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
C	Ground reflections and scattering make the field strength vary with location
D	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

2. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
B	Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
C	The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
D	The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

3. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
B	You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
C	You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
D	You must submit engineering drawings to the FAA

4. - E1C01

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	2.8 kHz
C	1.5 kHz
D	60 Hz

5. - E1D06

What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

Select	Answer
A	1 watt
B	100 watts
C	2 watts
D	5 watts

6. - E1E01

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
B	Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
C	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
D	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

7. - E1F10

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any licensed amateur operator
D	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

8. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	A log-periodic dipole array
B	A linearly polarized antenna
C	An isotropic antenna
D	A circularly polarized antenna

9. - E2B04

How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

Select	Answer
A	Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
B	Color lines are sent sequentially
C	Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier
D	Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line

10. - E2C02

Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting? in connection with HF contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
B	An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
C	A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
D	The often-prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network

11. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR III
B	Olivia
C	JT65
D	MSK144

12. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
B	One of the signal filters is saturated
C	The mark and space signal have been inverted
D	Selective fading has occurred

13. - E3A14

What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Select	Answer
A	Waves with a rotating electric field
B	Waves produced by a loop antenna
C	Waves that circle the Earth
D	Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
B	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
C	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
D	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox

15. - E3C01

What does the radio communication term "ray tracing" describe?

Select	Answer
A	The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern
B	Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
C	Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
D	Evaluating high voltage sources for x-rays

16. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
B	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
C	All these choices are correct
D	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source

17. - E4B09

What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter is not properly neutralized
B	There is more power going into the antenna
C	There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
D	There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line

18. - E4C03

What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization
B	Frequency discrimination
C	Capture effect
D	Cross-modulation interference

19. - E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
B	Odd-order products of two signals in the band of interest are also likely to be within the band
C	Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
D	Odd-order products overload the IF filters

20. - E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

Select	Answer
A	Reactive current only
B	Differential-mode current
C	Return current
D	Common-mode current

21. - E5A15

Which of the following increases Q for inductors and capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Lower reactance
B	Lower losses
C	Higher self-resonant frequency
D	Lower self-resonant frequency

22. - E5B03

How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

Select	Answer
A	Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
B	Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
C	Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
D	Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle

23. - E5C07

Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	On the horizontal axis
B	On a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees
C	On the vertical axis
D	On a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis

24. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In the same direction as the current
B	In a direction opposite to the current
C	In all directions; omni-directional
D	In a circle around the conductor

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

Select	Answer
A	An FET has lower input impedance
B	An FET has higher input impedance
C	They are both low impedance
D	They are both high impedance

26. - E6B08

Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

Select	Answer
A	PIN junction
B	Thermionic emission diode
C	Metal-semiconductor junction
D	Electrolytic rectifier

27. - E6C11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	6
C	5
D	2

28. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The skin effect
B	Inter-turn capacitance
C	Non-linear core hysteresis
D	Inductive kickback

29. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon dioxide
B	Gallium nitride
C	Silicon
D	Silicon nitride

30. - E6F08

Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
B	Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
C	Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
D	Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit

31. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	2
C	8
D	4

32. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class C
C	Push-push
D	Push-pull

33. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
B	Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
C	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
D	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value

34. - E7D04

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

Select	Answer
A	A series current source
B	A shunt regulator
C	A shunt current source
D	A series regulator

35. - E7E10

How does a diode envelope detector function?

Select	Answer
A	By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
B	By breakdown of the Zener voltage
C	By rectification and filtering of RF signals
D	By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

36. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

Select	Answer
A	Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
B	A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
C	Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
D	Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	A reduction in high frequency response
B	An echo caused by a long time delay
C	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
D	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

38. - E7H14

What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
B	An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
C	An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
D	An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator

39. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

Select	Answer
A	An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
B	A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
C	An error caused by irregular quantization step size
D	A small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time

40. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	0.3
B	3000
C	3
D	1000

41. - E8C12

What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation index and output power
B	Keying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)
C	IF bandwidth and Q
D	All these choices are correct

42. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

Select	Answer
A	Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
B	High-pass filters at the transmitter output
C	Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
D	Low-pass filters at the transmitter output

43. - E9A03

What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The specific impedance of the antenna
B	The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
C	The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
D	The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

44. - E9B04

What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E92?

Select	Answer
A	38 dB
B	15 dB
C	28 dB
D	3 dB

45. - E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
B	A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
C	A dipole constructed from zip cord
D	An end-fed dipole antenna

46. - E9D05

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The front-to-back ratio decreases
B	The front-to-back ratio increases
C	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
D	The SWR is reduced

47. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The stub match
B	The gamma match
C	The delta match
D	The epsilon match

48. - E9F07

How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Lower velocity factor
B	Smaller reflection coefficient
C	Higher SWR
D	Lower loss

49. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
B	Beam headings and radiation patterns
C	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
D	Trigonometric functions

50. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
B	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
C	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
D	By increasing the number of turns and/or the area

Figure E6-3