US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?

Select	Answer
A	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
B	Microwaves are ionizing radiation
C	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
D	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels

2. - E1A04

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
C	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
D	No, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment

3. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
B	Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
C	An emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
D	A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient

4. - E1C12

On what portion of the 630 meter band are phone emissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	Only the bottom 3 kHz
C	None
D	Only the top 3 kHz

5. - E1D12

Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

Select	Answer
A	A local repeater or linked repeater station
B	All these choices are correct
C	A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
D	A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station

6. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
C	Employees of the VE
D	Friends of the VE

7. - E1F10

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Any licensed amateur operator
B	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

8. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify regarding satellite communications?

Select	Answer
A	FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
B	The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
C	The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
D	Which sideband to use

9. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

Select	Answer
A	To identify the SSTV mode being used
B	To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
C	To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
D	To provide vertical synchronization

10. - E2C04

Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

Select	Answer
A	Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
B	HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
C	Cable TV channels 41 through 43
D	The 60 meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz

11. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	APRS
B	WSPR
C	Hellschreiber
D	MSK144

12. - E2E07

Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?

Select	Answer
A	Your transmit frequency is incorrect
B	All these choices are correct
C	Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
D	The protocol version you are using is not supported by the digital station

13. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The jet stream
B	Temperature inversion
C	Wind shear
D	Dust devil

14. - E3B07

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They are bent toward the magnetic poles
B	They become depolarized
C	They become elliptically polarized
D	They become phase locked

15. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Circular
B	Elliptical
C	Horizontal
D	Vertical

16. - E4A05

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
B	It amplifies low-level signals for more accurate counting
C	It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
D	It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

17. - E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
B	Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
C	50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
D	Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms

18. - E4C12

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's dynamic range?

Select	Answer
A	RAM speed used for data storage
B	Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
C	CPU register width in bits
D	Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth

19. - E4D03

How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

Select	Answer
A	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
B	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
C	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
D	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead

20. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Select	Answer
A	Signals that are constant at all IF levels
B	Signals that appear across a wide bandwidth
C	Signals that have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
D	Signals that appear at one IF but not another

21. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	7.12 kHz
B	23.5 MHz
C	7.12 MHz
D	23.5 kHz

22. - E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B	76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C	76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D	14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C09

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?

Select	Answer
A	The X axis represents the resistive component and the Y axis represents the reactive component
B	The X axis represents the phase angle and the Y axis represents the magnitude
C	The X axis represents the reactive component and the Y axis represents the resistive component
D	The X axis represents the magnitude and the Y axis represents the phase angle

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
B	Power consumed in circuit Q
C	Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D	Wattless, nonproductive power

25. - E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated gate
B	N-type
C	Bipolar
D	P-type

26. - E6B02

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	Less forward voltage drop
B	Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
C	More constant reverse avalanche voltage
D	Longer carrier retention time

27. - E6C08

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	4
C	2
D	1

28. - E6D11

Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Ceramic
B	Powdered iron
C	Ferrite
D	Brass

29. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Package mounts in a direct inverted position
B	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
C	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
D	Low leakage doubly insulated package

30. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
B	The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
C	The output RF power divided by the input DC power
D	Cost per kilowatt-hour generated

31. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
B	It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
C	It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
D	It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

32. - E7B09

Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
B	The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
C	The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
D	The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current

33. - E7C12

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Pi-networks provide balanced input and output
B	L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
C	The Q of Pi-networks can be controlled
D	Pi-networks are more stable

34. - E7D14

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
C	Provide a minimum load on the supply
D	Equalize the voltage across each capacitor

35. - E7E03

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

Select	Answer
A	An automatic band-switching circuit
B	An FM generator circuit
C	A circuit for detecting FM signals
D	A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

36. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuating the signal
B	Converting data to binary code decimal form
C	Removing unnecessary significant digits
D	Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples

37. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	Very high
C	Very low
D	1000 ohms

38. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a capacitive divider
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through link coupling
D	Through a tapped coil

39. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	25 to 1
B	1 to 1
C	100 to 1
D	2.5 to 1

40. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	47
B	0.47
C	2.14
D	0.214

41. - E8C09

Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

Select	Answer
A	Gray code
B	Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
C	Binary Coded Decimal Code
D	Excess 3 code

42. - E8D06

What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

Select	Answer
A	Faster transmission rate
B	The signal can overpower interfering signals
C	Some types of errors can be detected
D	Foreign language characters can be sent

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
B	The input power level
C	Antenna height
D	Transmission line length

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

Select	Answer
A	14 dB
B	12 dB
C	24 dB
D	18 dB

45. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an Extended Double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles
B	An end-fed folded dipole antenna
C	A center-fed 1.25-wavelength antenna (two 5/8-wave elements in phase)
D	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing

46. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize the Q
B	To swamp out harmonics
C	To minimize losses
D	To lower the radiation angle

47. - E9E05

How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element reactance must be capacitive
B	The driven element reactance must be inductive
C	The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
D	The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	13.3 meters
B	10.6 meters
C	7.0 meters
D	8.5 meters

49. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
B	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
C	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
D	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

50. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
B	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
C	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
D	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-1