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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A03

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

SelectAnswer
A300 kHz to 3 MHz
B3 to 30 MHz
C300 to 3000 MHz
D30 to 300 MHz

2. - E1A07

What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A1 watt EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
B50 watts PEP
C5 watts EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
D100 watts PEP

3. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

SelectAnswer
A30 miles
B3 miles
C10 miles
D1 mile

4. - E1C06

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

SelectAnswer
AThe U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
BYou must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
CYou must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
DYou must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048

5. - E1D05

What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

SelectAnswer
AA photocopy of the station license
BA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
CAll these choices are correct
DA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator

6. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

SelectAnswer
AEach administering VE
BThe FCC
CThe VEC coordinating the session
DThe VE session manager

7. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

SelectAnswer
AWhen transmitting international third-party communications
BWhen the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
CWhen the total money involved does not exceed $25
DWhen neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

8. - E2A03

How is the signal inverted by an inverting linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal is passed through a non-linear filter
BThe signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
CThe signal is reduced to I and Q components and the Q component is filtered out
DThe signal is passed through a mixer and the difference rather than the sum is transmitted

9. - E2B01

How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
A30
B120
C90
D60

10. - E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

SelectAnswer
A33 centimeters
B6 meters
C2 meters
D30 meters

11. - E2D09

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

SelectAnswer
ARTTY
BIEEE 802.11
CMulti-tone AFSK
DPSK

12. - E2E12

How do ALE stations establish contact?

SelectAnswer
AALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
BALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
CALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
DALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use

13. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

SelectAnswer
AA fluttery irregular fading
BThe returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
CA slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
DA gradual loss of signal as the sun rises

14. - E3B04

What is meant by the terms "extraordinary" and "ordinary" waves?

SelectAnswer
AExtraordinary waves describe rare long-skip propagation compared to ordinary waves, which travel shorter distances
BIndependent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
CLong-path and short-path waves
DRefracted rays and reflected waves

15. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the sun will cause disturbed conditions?

SelectAnswer
ASouthward
BEastward
CWestward
DNorthward

16. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

SelectAnswer
AAll signals will have a DC offset
BCalibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
CExcessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the signal
DA false, jittery low-frequency version of the signal is displayed

17. - E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

SelectAnswer
A75 watts
B25 watts
C125 watts
D100 watts

18. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and that uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

SelectAnswer
A13.845 MHz
B14.445 MHz
C15.210 MHz
D14.755 MHz

19. - E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

SelectAnswer
ASpurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
BOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
COscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
DCross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

20. - E4E07

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

SelectAnswer
ATying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
BUse of braided shielding material
CCommon-mode currents on the shield and conductors
DLow inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield

21. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AHigh, as compared to the circuit resistance
BApproximately equal to inductive reactance
CApproximately equal to circuit resistance
DApproximately equal to capacitive reactance

22. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
BVoltage and current are in phase
CVoltage leads current by 90 degrees
DCurrent leads voltage by 90 degrees

23. - E5C03

Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

SelectAnswer
AA positive magnitude
BA negative magnitude
CA negative phase angle
DA positive phase angle

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

SelectAnswer
A0.5
B0.866
C1.73
D0.577

25. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

SelectAnswer
ADonor impurity
BInsulator impurity
CAcceptor impurity
DN-type impurity

26. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

SelectAnswer
AExcessive inverse voltage
BCharge carrier depletion
CInsufficient forward voltage
DExcessive junction temperature

27. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

SelectAnswer
ADifferential output capability
BLower power consumption
CLower distortion
DImmune to damage from static discharge

28. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

SelectAnswer
AInter-turn capacitance
BNon-linear core hysteresis
CThe skin effect
DInductive kickback

29. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

SelectAnswer
ANearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
BThe ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
CPlate current that is controlled by a control grid
DControlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range

30. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

SelectAnswer
AIt stays the same
BIt increases
CIt becomes unstable
DIt decreases

31. - E7A07

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are logic 1
BIt produces logic 0 at its output only when all inputs are logic 1
CIt produces logic 1 at its output only when all inputs are logic 1
DIt produces logic 0 at its output only when all inputs are logic 0

32. - E7B09

Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

SelectAnswer
AThe tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
BThe loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
CThe loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
DThe tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current

33. - E7C03

What advantage does a series-L Pi-L-network have over a series-L Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AGreater transformation range
BGreater harmonic suppression
CDoes not require a capacitor
DHigher efficiency

34. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AInput voltage multiplied by input current
BVoltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
COutput voltage multiplied by output current
DInput voltage divided by output current

35. - E7E03

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

SelectAnswer
AAn FM generator circuit
BAn automatic band-switching circuit
CA circuit for detecting FM signals
DA circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

36. - E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

SelectAnswer
ADouble-precision math routines
BComplex phasor representations
CMore taps
DHigher data rate

37. - E7G06

What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AThe frequency at which the amplifier's offset voltage is zero
BThe frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
CThe maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
DThe gain of the amplifier at a filter's cutoff frequency

38. - E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BUse a GPS signal reference
CUse a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
DUse a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator

39. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
A2.5 to 1
B25 to 1
C1 to 1
D100 to 1

40. - E8B10

What is frequency division multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
BThe transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
CThe transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
DTwo or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

41. - E8C05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

SelectAnswer
A52 Hz
B104 Hz
C26 Hz
D13 Hz

42. - E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

SelectAnswer
AThe receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
BSignals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
CIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
DThe high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

43. - E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe input power level
BThe settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
CTransmission line length
DAntenna height

44. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

SelectAnswer
A18 dB
B24 dB
C14 dB
D12 dB

45. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

SelectAnswer
AFewer vertical angle lobes will be present
BThe low-angle radiation increases
CThe low-angle radiation decreases
DAdditional higher vertical angle lobes will appear

46. - E9D05

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

SelectAnswer
AThe front-to-back ratio decreases
BThe SWR is reduced
CThe frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
DThe front-to-back ratio increases

47. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

SelectAnswer
ATo transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
BTo provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
CTo provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
DTo cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network

48. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a foam polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A5.2 meters
B10.4 meters
C8.3 meters
D6.9 meters

49. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ATrigonometric functions
BSatellite azimuth and elevation bearings
CImpedance and SWR values in transmission lines
DBeam headings and radiation patterns

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
BLow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
CAll these choices are correct
DAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important

Figure E9-1