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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

SelectAnswer
ASignal Amplification Rating
BThe rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
CSynthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
DThe rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

2. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
BThe control operator of the packet bulletin board station
CThe control operators of all the stations in the system
DThe control operator of the originating station

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

SelectAnswer
AA letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
BA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
CA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
DAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC

4. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

SelectAnswer
AUnder local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
BUnder local control there is no control operator
CUnder automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
DUnder automatic control there is no control operator

5. - E1D12

Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

SelectAnswer
AA local repeater or linked repeater station
BAll these choices are correct
CA space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
DA message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station

6. - E1E01

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

SelectAnswer
APreparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
BProviding amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
CTeaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
DNo expenses are authorized for reimbursement

7. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

SelectAnswer
AIt must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
BIt must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
CIt must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
DIt must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

8. - E2A10

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

SelectAnswer
AHEO
BLEO
CGeostationary
DGeomagnetic

9. - E2B10

What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

SelectAnswer
ASync amplitude
BTone amplitude
CTone frequency
DSync frequency

10. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

SelectAnswer
ARepeater contacts between U.S. club members
BContacts using tactical call signs
CSpecial event contacts between stations in the U.S.
DContacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station

11. - E2D04

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

SelectAnswer
AAPRS
BDoppler shift of beacon signals
CBandwidth compressed LORAN
DUltrasonics

12. - E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

SelectAnswer
APSK31
BPACTOR
CMT63
DRTTY

13. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

SelectAnswer
AMountain ranges
BUrban areas
CForests
DBodies of water

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

SelectAnswer
AAround the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
BAround the solstices, especially the summer solstice
CAround the solstices, especially the winter solstice
DAround the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox

15. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

SelectAnswer
AAn extreme geomagnetic storm
BModerate solar wind
CVery low solar activity
DWaning sunspot numbers

16. - E4A09

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

SelectAnswer
ANever use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
BAll these choices are correct
CKeep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
DNever use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit

17. - E4B10

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
BModulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
CModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
DModulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer

18. - E4C11

Why can an attenuator be used to reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

SelectAnswer
AThe attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
BSignals are attenuated separately from the noise
CAtmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
DThe attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals

19. - E4D06

What is the term for spurious signals generated by the combination of two or more signals in a non-linear device or circuit?

SelectAnswer
AAmplifier desensitization
BIntermodulation
CNeutralization
DAdjacent channel interference

20. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

SelectAnswer
ASignals that are constant at all IF levels
BSignals that have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
CSignals that appear across a wide bandwidth
DSignals that appear at one IF but not another

21. - E5A10

How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?

SelectAnswer
AReactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
BReactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
CResistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
DReactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance

22. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of magnetic field to electric field
BThe magnetic impedance of a circuit
CA measure of the efficiency of a transformer
DThe imaginary part of admittance

23. - E5C01

Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

SelectAnswer
ADelta
BOmega
C+jX
D-jX

24. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A80 watts
B50 watts
C400 watts
D2000 watts

25. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

SelectAnswer
AIn high-power audio circuits
BIn very low-frequency RF circuits
CIn high-current rectifier circuits
DIn microwave circuits

26. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

SelectAnswer
AAs a constant voltage reference in a power supply
BAs a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
CAs a rectifier in high current power supplies
DAs a VHF/UHF mixer or detector

27. - E6C10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
A2
B4
C3
D1

28. - E6D01

Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?

SelectAnswer
ARF susceptance would increase
BHarmonics and distortion could result
CMagnetic flux would increase with frequency
DTemporary changes of the core permeability could result

29. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

SelectAnswer
ASilicon nitride
BGallium nitride
CSilicon
DSilicon dioxide

30. - E6F01

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
AHoles
BElectrons
CProtons
DPhotons

31. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 0 at its output only if all inputs are logic 0
BIt produces logic 1 at its output if only one input is logic 1
CIt produces logic 1 at its output only if all inputs are logic 1
DIt produces logic 0 at its output if only one input is logic 1

32. - E7B01

For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull Class AB amplifier conduct?

SelectAnswer
AExactly 180 degrees
BLess than 180 degrees
CThe entire cycle
DMore than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees

33. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

SelectAnswer
AThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals
BThe gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
CThe amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
DThe DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

34. - E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

SelectAnswer
AGrounded emitter amplifier
BMonostable multivibrator
CLinear voltage regulator
DSwitching voltage regulator

35. - E7E03

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

SelectAnswer
AA circuit for detecting FM signals
BAn automatic band-switching circuit
CA circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
DAn FM generator circuit

36. - E7F09

Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?

SelectAnswer
AIt peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
BIt notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
CIt removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration
DIt removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components

37. - E7G01

What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

SelectAnswer
AVery high
B1000 ohms
CVery low
D100 ohms

38. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a tapped coil
BThrough link coupling
CThrough a neutralizing capacitor
DThrough a capacitive divider

39. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

SelectAnswer
AA method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
BAn abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
CAn error caused by irregular quantization step size
DA small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time

40. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A60
B1.67
C0.167
D0.6

41. - E8C07

What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

SelectAnswer
A9.6 kHz
B4.8 kHz
C15.36 kHz
D5.76 kHz

42. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
ABinary phase-shift keying
BDirect sequence
CPhase compandored spread spectrum
DFrequency hopping

43. - E9A08

What is antenna bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AThe angle between the half-power radiation points
BThe frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
CAntenna length divided by the number of elements
DThe angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A25 degrees
B75 degrees
C45 degrees
D7.5 degrees

45. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA dipole configured to provide forward gain
BA half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends
CA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
DA type of ground-plane antenna

46. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
ANear the center of the vertical radiator
BAt a voltage node
CAs close to the transmitter as possible
DAs low as possible on the vertical radiator

47. - E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

SelectAnswer
AInsert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
BConnect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
CInsert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
DConnect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

48. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AThe same as the generator output impedance
BVery high impedance
CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
DVery low impedance

49. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AVoltage lines and current chords
BResistance circles and reactance arcs
CVoltage circles and current arcs
DResistance lines and reactance chords

50. - E9H11

What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
ABroadband response
BA very sharp single null
CA very sharp peak
DHigh radiation angle

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-2

Figure E9-2