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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

SelectAnswer
AReduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
BReduce received noise
CLightning protection
DReduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment

2. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
BThe amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
CThe amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
DIts operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft

3. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

SelectAnswer
AAny transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
BAn amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
CA signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
DAn emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

SelectAnswer
ACommunications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
BMessages intended for users of the maritime satellite service
CBusiness-related messages for non-profit organizations
DAll these choices are correct

5. - E1D02

Which of the following may transmit special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages?

SelectAnswer
ATelecommand signals from a space telecommand station
BAuxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
CData containing personal information
DBinary control characters

6. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

SelectAnswer
AEach General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
BThe amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
CThe prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
DThe procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

7. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emissions?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
BThe transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
CA station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
DAll these choices are correct

8. - E2A12

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
ATo upload operational software for the transponder
BTo relay messages between satellites
CTo store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
DTo delay download of telemetry between satellites

9. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
ABy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
BBy scanning each field from bottom to top
CBy scanning two fields simultaneously
DBy scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

10. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

SelectAnswer
ATo run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
BTo handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
CTo relay calls to and from a DX station
DTo allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

11. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

SelectAnswer
AConnect
BDisconnect
CUnnumbered Information
DAcknowledgement

12. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

SelectAnswer
A48 baud
B300 baud
C110 baud
D1200 baud

13. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

SelectAnswer
A100 miles to 300 miles
B2500 miles
C1200 miles
D10 miles to 50 miles

14. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
ANoon
BLate at night
CMorning
DAfternoon or early evening

15. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

SelectAnswer
AClass A
BClass B
CClass X
DClass M

16. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

SelectAnswer
ABit error rate tester
BLogic analyzer
CModulation monitor
DNetwork analyzer

17. - E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

SelectAnswer
A125 watts
B75 watts
C25 watts
D100 watts

18. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and that uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

SelectAnswer
A14.755 MHz
B13.845 MHz
C14.445 MHz
D15.210 MHz

19. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

SelectAnswer
AA properly terminated circulator at the output of the repeater's transmitter
BUtilizing a Class C final amplifier
CUtilizing a Class D final amplifier
DA band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver

20. - E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

SelectAnswer
ACommon-mode current
BReactive current only
CReturn current
DDifferential-mode current

21. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
BThe voltage and current are in phase
CThe voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
DThe voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

22. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AIt is unchanged
BIt is shifted by 90 degrees
CThe sign is reversed
DIt becomes the reciprocal

23. - E5C07

Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?

SelectAnswer
AOn the vertical axis
BOn the horizontal axis
COn a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees
DOn a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis

24. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

SelectAnswer
A400 watts
B80 watts
C50 watts
D2000 watts

25. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

SelectAnswer
AAlpha rejection frequency
BBeta cutoff frequency
CCorner frequency
DAlpha cutoff frequency

26. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

SelectAnswer
ALow junction capacitance
BAbility to dissipate large amounts of power
CExtremely high reverse breakdown voltage
DReverse bias controls its forward voltage drop

27. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

SelectAnswer
ALower distortion
BImmune to damage from static discharge
CDifferential output capability
DLower power consumption

28. - E6D07

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

SelectAnswer
AStabilizing current
BDirect current
CExcitation current
DMagnetizing current

29. - E6E08

How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

SelectAnswer
AThrough a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
BThrough a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
CMMICs require no operating bias
DDirectly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead

30. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
ACost per kilowatt-hour generated
BThe open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
CThe relative fraction of light that is converted to current
DThe output RF power divided by the input DC power

31. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

SelectAnswer
AIt stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
BIt maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
CIt produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
DIt switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time

32. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

SelectAnswer
ASelf bias
BOutput load resistor
CEmitter bypass
DFixed bias

33. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

SelectAnswer
AIt cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
BIt introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
CReactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
DIt introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

34. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
BTo provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
CTo compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
DTo allow for remote control of the power supply

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

SelectAnswer
ATo produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
BTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
CTo produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
DTo produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

36. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

SelectAnswer
ASoftware is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
BIncoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
CIncoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
DA switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input

37. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

SelectAnswer
A76
B38
C1
D0.03

38. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?

SelectAnswer
AColpitts, Hartley and Pierce
BPierce, Fenner and Beane
CTaft, Hartley and Pierce
DTaft, Pierce and negative feedback

39. - E8A11

Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

SelectAnswer
ATotal harmonic distortion
BReciprocal mixing
CPower factor
DPeak envelope power

40. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.47
B2.14
C0.214
D47

41. - E8C05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

SelectAnswer
A52 Hz
B13 Hz
C104 Hz
D26 Hz

42. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

SelectAnswer
ABaudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
BBaudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
CBaudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
DBaudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

43. - E9A12

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

SelectAnswer
A2.79 dB
B8.15 dB
C6.0 dB
D3.85 dB

44. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
AAzimuth
BElevation
CRadiation resistance
DPolarization

45. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA type of ground-plane antenna
BA half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends
CA dipole one-quarter wavelength long
DA dipole configured to provide forward gain

46. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

SelectAnswer
ATo swamp out harmonics
BTo minimize the Q
CTo lower the radiation angle
DTo minimize losses

47. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe epsilon match
BThe delta match
CThe gamma match
DThe stub match

48. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
BThe index of shielding for coaxial cable
CThe velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
DThe velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

49. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ATrigonometric functions
BImpedance and SWR values in transmission lines
CBeam headings and radiation patterns
DSatellite azimuth and elevation bearings

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

SelectAnswer
ATo compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
BTo narrow the receiver bandwidth
CTo prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls
DTo increase receiver sensitivity

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-2