US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A07

Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	12 meter band
B	60 meter band
C	30 meter band
D	17 meter band

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
B	The amateur station must cease operation
C	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
D	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

3. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Select	Answer
A	Never
B	Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
C	When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
D	When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	Any class with appropriate operator privileges
B	All except Technician Class
C	Only Amateur Extra Class
D	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class

5. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

Select	Answer
A	A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
B	A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
C	An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
D	The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

7. - E2A14

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	APRS
B	Radar
C	Bandwidth compressed LORAN
D	Doppler shift of beacon signals

8. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Select	Answer
A	Luminance
B	Chroma
C	Spectral Intensity
D	Hue

9. - E2C02

Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting in regards to HF contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
B	An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
C	A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
D	The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Time and frequency
B	Polar coordinates
C	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
D	Latitude and longitude

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic
B	Remote
C	ALE can use any type of control
D	Local

12. - E3A16

Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Select	Answer
A	Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
B	The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
C	The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
D	Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy

13. - E3B13

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

Select	Answer
A	Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
B	Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
C	The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
D	The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation

14. - E3C09

How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

Select	Answer
A	10 percent greater
B	50 percent greater
C	Four times as great
D	Twice as great

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
B	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Match the antenna to the load

16. - E4B16

Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?

Select	Answer
A	S22
B	S11
C	S12
D	S21

17. - E4C15

What is usually the primary source of noise that is heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Select	Answer
A	Induction motor noise
B	Atmospheric noise
C	Receiver front-end noise
D	Detector noise

18. - E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Nonlinear circuits or devices
B	Positive feedback
C	Lack of neutralization
D	Too little gain

19. - E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Select	Answer
A	Meteor showers
B	Geomagnetic storms
C	Solar radio frequency emissions
D	Thunderstorms

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum
B	L/R
C	Minimum
D	R/L

21. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	220 seconds
B	440 seconds
C	55 seconds
D	110 seconds

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

Select	Answer
A	The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
B	The tangent and cotangent values
C	The sine and cosine values
D	The magnitude and phase of the point

23. - E5D16

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	1.73
B	0.5
C	0.577
D	0.866

24. - E6A05

What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The change of collector current with respect to base current
B	The change of collector current with respect to gate current
C	The change of base current with respect to collector current
D	The change of collector current with respect to emitter current

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Tunnel
B	Zener
C	Point contact
D	Junction

26. - E6C13

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
B	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It is totally immune to electrostatic damage

27. - E6D14

Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Brass
B	Ceramic
C	Ferrite
D	Powdered-iron

28. - E6E07

Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Ground-plane construction
B	Wave-soldering construction
C	Point-to-point construction
D	Microstrip construction

29. - E6F07

What is a solid state relay?

Select	Answer
A	A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
B	A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
C	A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
D	A passive delay line

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
D	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Load resistors
B	Fixed bias
C	Feedback
D	Self bias

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Select	Answer
A	Cascode
B	Pi-L
C	Pi
D	Omega

33. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
B	Input voltage divided by output current
C	Output voltage multiplied by output current
D	Input voltage multiplied by input current

34. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A pre-emphasis network
B	An audio prescaler
C	A heterodyne suppressor
D	A de-emphasis network

35. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters?

Select	Answer
A	Removing unnecessary significant digits
B	Attenuating the signal
C	Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
D	Converting data to binary code decimal form

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	0.07
B	7
C	14
D	28

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A direct digital synthesizer
B	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
C	A phase locked loop synthesizer
D	A hybrid synthesizer

38. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog to digital converters?

Select	Answer
A	An error caused by irregular quantization step size
B	A small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time
C	A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
D	An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
B	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
C	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
D	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	5.76 kHz
B	15.36 kHz
C	9.6 kHz
D	4.8 kHz

41. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency hopping
B	Phase compandored spread spectrum
C	Direct sequence
D	Binary phase-shift keying

42. - E9A05

What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Radiation resistance plus space impedance
B	Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
C	Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
D	Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance

43. - E9B04

What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Select	Answer
A	Feed point impedance may become negative
B	Element spacing limits could be exceeded
C	The gain may change depending on frequency
D	The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse

44. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	Cardioid
C	A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
D	A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

45. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	As low as possible on the vertical radiator
B	At a voltage node
C	Near the center of the vertical radiator
D	As close to the transmitter as possible

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Characteristic impedance
B	Reflection coefficient
C	Dielectric constant
D	Velocity factor

47. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitive reactance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	An inductive reactance
D	The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

48. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

Select	Answer
A	In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
B	In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
C	In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
D	In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A very sharp single null
B	A very sharp peak
C	Broad band response
D	High-radiation angle

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
B	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
C	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
D	All of these choices are correct

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-4