US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A09

What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Discontinue forwarding all messages
B	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
C	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
D	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
B	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C	Specific local government channels
D	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
B	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
C	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
D	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
D	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

Select	Answer
A	The VE session manager
B	The FCC
C	The VEC coordinating the session
D	Each administering VE

6. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

Select	Answer
A	A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
B	A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border
C	A line roughly parallel to and north of the U.S.-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
D	A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline

7. - E2A10

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Select	Answer
A	Because of ionospheric absorption
B	Because the satellite is spinning
C	Because of the Doppler Effect
D	Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude

8. - E2B19

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted above 54 MHz
B	They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C	They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D	None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies

9. - E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

Select	Answer
A	30 m
B	33 cm
C	6 m
D	2 m

10. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR III
B	Olivia
C	JT65
D	FSK441

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
B	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
C	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
D	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

12. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Wind shear
B	Temperature inversion
C	Dust devil
D	The jet stream

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	6 meters to 2 meters
B	160 meters to 10 meters
C	160 meters to 40 meters
D	30 meters to 10 meters

14. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

Select	Answer
A	Duration of long-delayed echoes
B	Geomagnetic field stability
C	Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
D	Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field

15. - E4A09

When using a computer's soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?

Select	Answer
A	It depends on how the data is stored internally
B	The same as the sample rate
C	One-tenth the sample rate
D	One-half the sample rate

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	1.4652 kHz
B	14.652 Hz
C	0.1 MHz
D	1.4652 Hz

17. - E4C02

Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

Select	Answer
A	A narrow IF filter
B	A notch filter
C	A properly adjusted product detector
D	A front-end filter or pre-selector

18. - E4D13

Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Strong adjacent channel signals
B	Squelch gain misadjusted
C	Audio bias adjusted too high
D	Audio gain adjusted too low

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Power line noise
C	Ignition noise
D	Broadband white noise

20. - E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	L/R
B	Maximum
C	Minimum
D	R/L

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	It is unchanged
D	The sign is reversed

22. - E5C13

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Rectangular coordinates
B	Maidenhead grid
C	Elliptical coordinates
D	Faraday grid

23. - E5D17

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	1600 watts
B	200 watts
C	1000 watts
D	600 watts

24. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	Beta cutoff frequency
B	Alpha rejection frequency
C	Alpha cutoff frequency
D	Corner frequency

25. - E6B02

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
B	Less forward voltage drop
C	Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
D	Enhanced carrier retention time

26. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

Select	Answer
A	The comparator changes its output state
B	The IC input can be damaged
C	The comparator enters latch-up
D	The feedback loop becomes unstable

27. - E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
B	Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
C	Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
D	Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

28. - E6E12

Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?

Select	Answer
A	High-voltage insulating ability
B	To provide a low-pass frequency response
C	Enhanced sensitivity to light
D	Better dissipation of heat

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes unstable
B	It decreases
C	It stays the same
D	It increases

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Positive Logic
B	Assertive Logic
C	Negative logic
D	Reverse Logic

31. - E7B09

Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
B	The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
C	The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
D	The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current

32. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

Select	Answer
A	A passive op-amp filter
B	A Butterworth filter
C	An active LC filter
D	A Chebyshev filter

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
B	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
C	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
D	It has a ramp voltage as its output

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
B	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
C	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
D	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	Instantaneous and Quenched
B	Inactive and Quiescent
C	In-phase and Quadrature
D	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	Very low
C	1000 ohms
D	Very high

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a neutralizing capacitor
B	Through link coupling
C	Through a tapped coil
D	Through a quartz crystal

38. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
C	Immunity to out of sequence coding reduces spurious responses
D	Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.167
B	1.67
C	60
D	0.6

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
B	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
C	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
D	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors

41. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency hopping
B	Binary phase-shift keying
C	Phase compandored spread spectrum
D	Direct sequence

42. - E9A05

What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
B	Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
C	Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
D	Radiation resistance plus space impedance

43. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	7.5 degrees
B	25 degrees
C	45 degrees
D	75 degrees

44. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Cardioid
B	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
C	A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
D	Omni-directional

45. - E9D10

What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
B	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
C	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
D	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR greater than 1:1
B	An SWR less than 1:1
C	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
D	A dielectric constant greater than 1

47. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Select	Answer
A	Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
B	The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
C	Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
D	The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Prime axis
B	Polar axis
C	Impedance axis
D	Reactance axis

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A very sharp single null
B	High-radiation angle
C	A very sharp peak
D	Broad band response

50. - E0A03

Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
B	Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
C	All of the choices are correct
D	Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3