US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A03

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
B	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C	Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
D	No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
B	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C	Specific local government channels
D	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator

3. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Select	Answer
A	Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
B	When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
C	Never
D	When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
B	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
B	In FCC Part 97
C	In a question pool maintained by the FCC
D	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs

6. - E1F10

What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

Select	Answer
A	1 W
B	1.5 W
C	1.5 kW
D	10 W

7. - E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

Select	Answer
A	LEO
B	HEO
C	Geomagnetic
D	Geostationary

8. - E2B10

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	10 KHz
B	3 KHz
C	15 KHz
D	20 KHz

9. - E2C04

What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
B	Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
C	Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
D	Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Latitude and longitude
B	Polar coordinates
C	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
D	Time and frequency

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
B	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
C	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
D	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO

12. - E3A01

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

Select	Answer
A	5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
B	2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
C	12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
D	500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Any time
B	Around sunset
C	Around sunrise
D	Early evening

14. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
B	UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
C	The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
D	The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels

15. - E4A01

Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	Input impedance
B	Sampling rate
C	Input capacitance
D	Sample resolution

16. - E4B17

What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
B	50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
C	Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
D	50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms

17. - E4C04

How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
B	The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
C	The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
D	The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise

18. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To store often-used frequencies
B	To provide a range of AGC time constants
C	To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
D	To increase rejection of unwanted signals

19. - E4E12

What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

Select	Answer
A	Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
B	A DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
C	Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
D	Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal

20. - E5A12

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

Select	Answer
A	31.4 kHz
B	15.7 kHz
C	436.6 kHz
D	218.3 kHz

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The sign is reversed
B	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
C	It is shifted by 90 degrees
D	It is unchanged

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 7
B	Point 3
C	Point 8
D	Point 1

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In a direction opposite to the current
B	In the same direction as the current
C	In all directions; omni-directional
D	In a direction determined by the left-hand rule

24. - E6A05

What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The change of collector current with respect to gate current
B	The change of collector current with respect to base current
C	The change of base current with respect to collector current
D	The change of collector current with respect to emitter current

25. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

Select	Answer
A	As balanced mixers in FM generation
B	As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C	As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
D	As a constant voltage reference in a power supply

26. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Select	Answer
A	Lower power consumption
B	Lower distortion
C	Immune to damage from static discharge
D	Differential output capability

27. - E6D01

How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

Select	Answer
A	141 turns
B	13 turns
C	79 turns
D	35 turns

28. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

Select	Answer
A	PLCC
B	SOT
C	DIP
D	Ball grid array

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It decreases
C	It becomes unstable
D	It stays the same

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	An "AND" gate
C	A clock
D	An "OR" gate

31. - E7B03

Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
B	A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
C	A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
D	A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity

32. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

Select	Answer
A	A passive op-amp filter
B	A Chebyshev filter
C	A Butterworth filter
D	An active LC filter

33. - E7D02

What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It gives a ramp voltage at its output
B	The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
C	It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
D	The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce impulse noise reception
B	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
C	For higher efficiency
D	To remove third-order distortion products

35. - E7F01

What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

Select	Answer
A	Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
B	Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
C	A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
D	Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	A reduction in high frequency response
B	An echo caused by a long time delay
C	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
D	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

37. - E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through link coupling
B	Through a capacitive divider
C	Through a tapped coil
D	Through a neutralizing capacitor

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

Select	Answer
A	Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
B	Improve accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input
C	Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
D	All of these choices are correct

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely low-power contacts
B	EME
C	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
D	High speed digital modes

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
B	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
C	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
D	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

41. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	Phase compandored spread spectrum
B	Direct sequence
C	Frequency hopping
D	Binary phase-shift keying

42. - E9A12

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	8.15 dB
B	3.85 dB
C	6.0 dB
D	2.79 dB

43. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	Elevation
B	Polarization
C	Azimuth
D	Radiation resistance

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
B	A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
C	A multi-band trap antenna
D	A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line

45. - E9D02

How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Select	Answer
A	Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
B	Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
C	Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
D	Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

46. - E9E11

What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Select	Answer
A	Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
B	Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
C	Use the universal stub matching technique
D	Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

47. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Select	Answer
A	Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
B	Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
C	The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
D	The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

48. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

Select	Answer
A	In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
B	In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
C	In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
D	In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It has a bidirectional pattern
B	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
C	It receives equally well in all directions
D	It is non-rotatable

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
B	Signal Amplification Rating
C	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
D	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

Figure E5-2

Figure E9-2