US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A07

Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	12 meter band
B	30 meter band
C	17 meter band
D	60 meter band

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
B	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
C	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
B	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
C	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
D	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas

4. - E1D07

Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
B	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
C	All HF bands
D	Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
C	A sentence of up to one year in prison
D	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
B	When transmitting international third-party communications
C	When the total money involved does not exceed $25
D	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency

7. - E2A12

What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

Select	Answer
A	By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
B	By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
C	By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
D	By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

8. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

Select	Answer
A	A special front end limiter
B	A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
C	No other hardware is needed
D	A special IF converter

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
B	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
C	To relay calls to and from a DX station
D	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
D	It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	Hellschreiber
B	AMTOR
C	RTTY
D	PACTOR

12. - E3A04

What do Hepburn maps predict?

Select	Answer
A	Likelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts
B	Locations of auroral reflecting zones
C	Probability of tropospheric propagation
D	Sporadic E propagation

13. - E3B07

Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a signal by more than one path
B	High D layer absorption
C	Meteor scatter
D	Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class M
B	Class B
C	Class A
D	Class X

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

16. - E4B14

What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Cross modulation occurs
C	A less accurate reading results
D	Intermodulation distortion occurs

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
B	It reduces receiver sensitivity
C	It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
D	It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range

18. - E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
B	The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
C	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
D	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

19. - E4E08

What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
B	A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
C	An electrical-sparking signal
D	A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency

20. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

Select	Answer
A	23.67 kHz
B	315.6 Hz
C	47.3 kHz
D	157.8 Hz

21. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B	76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C	14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D	14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 3
B	Point 7
C	Point 1
D	Point 8

23. - E5D17

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	1600 watts
B	200 watts
C	1000 watts
D	600 watts

24. - E6A17

What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter, base, collector
B	Emitter, base 1, base 2
C	Gate, drain, source
D	Gate 1, gate 2, drain

25. - E6B02

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
B	Enhanced carrier retention time
C	Less forward voltage drop
D	Controlled reverse avalanche voltage

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
B	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
C	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false
D	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Permeability
B	Resistance
C	Reactivity
D	Thermal impedance

28. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low leakage doubly insulated package
B	Package mounts in a direct inverted position
C	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
D	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)

29. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
B	The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
C	The output RF power divided by the input DC power
D	The effective payback period

30. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

Select	Answer
A	It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven segment LED display
B	It adds two decimal numbers together
C	It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
D	It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses

31. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even order harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Push-push
C	Push-pull
D	Class AB

32. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
B	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
C	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
D	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple

33. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
B	Input voltage divided by output current
C	Input voltage multiplied by input current
D	Output voltage multiplied by output current

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
B	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
C	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
D	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

35. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

Select	Answer
A	At twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
B	At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
C	At half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
D	At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
B	It does not vary with frequency
C	It increases linearly with increasing frequency
D	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

37. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Select	Answer
A	Colpitts and Hartley
B	Armstrong and deForest
C	Pierce and Zener
D	Negative feedback and balanced feedback

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

Select	Answer
A	Improve accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input
B	Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
C	Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
D	All of these choices are correct

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.214
B	2.14
C	0.47
D	47

40. - E8C05

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 104 Hz
B	Approximately 26 Hz
C	Approximately 13 Hz
D	Approximately 52 Hz

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Baud rate
B	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
C	Signal to noise ratio
D	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)

42. - E9A11

Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

Select	Answer
A	Soil conductivity
B	Distance from the transmitter
C	The standing wave ratio
D	Take-off angle

43. - E9B13

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Select	Answer
A	Numerical Electromagnetic Code
B	National Electrical Code
C	Numeric Electrical Computation
D	Next Element Comparison

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Cardioid
B	Omni-directional
C	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
D	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

45. - E9D02

How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Select	Answer
A	Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom fed 90 degrees out of phase
B	Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
C	Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
D	Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The stub match
B	The gamma match
C	The delta match
D	The epsilon match

47. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
B	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
C	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
D	The index of shielding for coaxial cable

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage lines and current chords
B	Resistance lines and reactance chords
C	Resistance circles and reactance arcs
D	Voltage circles and current arcs

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
B	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
C	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
D	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
B	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
C	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
D	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge

Figure E5-2