US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Select	Answer
A	Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
B	The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
C	The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
D	The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	3 miles
B	30 miles
C	10 miles
D	1 mile

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	A control operator must be present at the control point
B	A control operator need not be present at the control point
C	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
D	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
B	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
C	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
D	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
B	A sentence of up to one year in prison
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

6. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

Select	Answer
A	420 MHz - 430 MHz
B	222 MHz - 223 MHz
C	53 MHz - 54 MHz
D	440 MHz - 450 MHz

7. - E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

Select	Answer
A	HEO
B	Geostationary
C	LEO
D	Geomagnetic

8. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
B	Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
C	Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
D	A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

9. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

Select	Answer
A	A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
B	The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
C	The most common set of contest rules
D	A standard for submission of electronic contest logs

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
B	It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
C	It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Select	Answer
A	Selective fading has occurred
B	The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
C	One of the signal filters is saturated
D	The mark and space signal have been inverted

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	10 MHz - 14 MHz
B	28 MHz - 148 MHz
C	220 MHz - 450 MHz
D	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Noon
B	Late at night
C	Morning
D	Afternoon or early evening

14. - E3C03

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic-E
B	Polar paths
C	NVIS
D	Transequatorial propagation

15. - E4A13

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

Select	Answer
A	A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
B	A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
C	A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
D	A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

16. - E4B02

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It is very precise in obtaining a signal null
B	It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
C	It can display results directly in Smith chart format
D	It provides an excellent match under all conditions

17. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

Select	Answer
A	14.445 MHz
B	15.210 MHz
C	14.755 MHz
D	13.845 MHz

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
B	A Class D final amplifier
C	A Class C final amplifier
D	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver

19. - E4E13

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Select	Answer
A	A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
B	Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
C	A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
B	Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
C	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
D	Approximately equal to circuit resistance

21. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B	14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C	14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D	68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 1
B	Point 8
C	Point 7
D	Point 3

23. - E5D11

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.866
B	1.414
C	1.73
D	0.5

24. - E6A17

What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Gate, drain, source
B	Emitter, base, collector
C	Emitter, base 1, base 2
D	Gate 1, gate 2, drain

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	5
C	1
D	7

26. - E6C10

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	2
C	3
D	1

27. - E6D07

What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

Select	Answer
A	From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
B	From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
C	From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
D	From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
B	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
C	MMICs require no operating bias
D	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	A heavy metal
B	A liquid semiconductor
C	A crystalline semiconductor
D	An ordinary metal

30. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

Select	Answer
A	It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
B	It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven segment LED display
C	It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
D	It adds two decimal numbers together

31. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal inversion
B	Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
C	Increased overall intelligibility
D	Reduced intermodulation products

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a notch filter
B	It is a band-pass filter
C	It is a low-pass filter
D	It is a high-pass filter

33. - E7D04

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

Select	Answer
A	A shunt regulator
B	A shunt current source
C	A series regulator
D	A series current source

34. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A heterodyne suppressor
B	An audio prescaler
C	A pre-emphasis network
D	A de-emphasis network

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	A Hilbert-transform filter
B	An adaptive filter
C	A phase-inverting filter
D	A crystal-lattice filter

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	0.03
B	1
C	38
D	76

37. - E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
C	Use a GPS signal reference
D	Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator

38. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

Select	Answer
A	Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
D	Immunity to out of sequence coding reduces spurious responses

39. - E8B01

What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation index
B	Percentage of modulation
C	Quieting index
D	FM compressibility

40. - E8C04

What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Use of trapezoidal data pulses
B	Reed-Solomon character encoding
C	Use of sinusoidal data pulses
D	Zero-sum character encoding

41. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

Select	Answer
A	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
B	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
C	The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
D	A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

42. - E9A13

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	14.15 dB
B	9.85 dB
C	12.5 dB
D	6.17 dB

43. - E9B09

What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Method of Moments
B	Mutual impedance analysis
C	Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
D	Graphical analysis

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole configured to provide forward gain
B	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
C	A type of ground-plane antenna
D	A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop

45. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher losses
B	Lower Q
C	Improved radiation efficiency
D	Greater structural strength

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
B	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
C	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
D	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics

47. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
B	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
C	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D	The index of shielding for coaxial cable

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance axis
B	Polar axis
C	Prime axis
D	Reactance axis

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
B	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
C	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
D	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity

50. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Select	Answer
A	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
B	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
C	Microwaves are ionizing radiation
D	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-3

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-3