US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
C	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
D	Any FCC-issued amateur license

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

3. - E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

Select	Answer
A	3 minutes
B	10 minutes
C	5 minutes
D	30 seconds

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
B	All except Technician Class
C	Any class with appropriate operator privileges
D	Only Amateur Extra Class

5. - E1E01

What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	5
C	2
D	4

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When transmitting international third-party communications
B	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
C	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
D	When the total money involved does not exceed $25

7. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Select	Answer
A	The location of the ground control station
B	The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
C	The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
D	Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

8. - E2B01

How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

Select	Answer
A	30
B	120
C	60
D	90

9. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

Select	Answer
A	A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
B	The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
C	A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
D	The most common set of contest rules

10. - E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-satellite relaying
B	Store-and-forward
C	Digipeating
D	Node hopping

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
B	It depends on the lunar phase
C	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
D	Stations take turns on alternate days

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	28 MHz - 148 MHz
B	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
C	220 MHz - 450 MHz
D	10 MHz - 14 MHz

13. - E3B09

At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
B	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
D	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice

14. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Circular
B	Horizontal
C	Vertical
D	Elliptical

15. - E4A09

When using a computer's soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?

Select	Answer
A	It depends on how the data is stored internally
B	One-half the sample rate
C	The same as the sample rate
D	One-tenth the sample rate

16. - E4B16

Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?

Select	Answer
A	S21
B	S22
C	S12
D	S11

17. - E4C13

How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
B	It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
C	It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
D	All of these choices are correct

18. - E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
B	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
C	The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
D	The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

19. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Select	Answer
A	Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
B	Signals which are constant at all IF levels
C	Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
D	Signals which appear at one IF but not another

20. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	3.56 MHz
B	44.72 MHz
C	22.36 MHz
D	1.78 MHz

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	The sign is reversed
C	It is shifted by 90 degrees
D	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance

22. - E5C05

What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Phasor diagram
B	Near field diagram
C	Venn diagram
D	Far field diagram

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In all directions; omni-directional
B	In a direction opposite to the current
C	In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
D	In the same direction as the current

24. - E6A05

What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The change of collector current with respect to gate current
B	The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
C	The change of base current with respect to collector current
D	The change of collector current with respect to base current

25. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	A large region of intrinsic material
B	Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
C	Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
D	Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

26. - E6C12

What is BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
B	A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
C	A FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
D	A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package

27. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive kickback
B	Inter-turn capacitance
C	Non-linear core hysteresis
D	The skin effect

28. - E6E04

Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms
B	10 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	300 ohms

29. - E6F07

What is a solid state relay?

Select	Answer
A	A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
B	A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
C	A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
D	A passive delay line

30. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Negative logic
B	Assertive Logic
C	Reverse Logic
D	Positive Logic

31. - E7B09

Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
B	The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
C	The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
D	The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current

32. - E7C12

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
B	A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
C	A Phase Inverter Load network
D	A network with only three discrete parts

33. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
B	To allow for remote control of the power supply
C	To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
D	To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually

34. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A balanced modulator on the oscillator
B	A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
C	A reactance modulator on the oscillator
D	A reactance modulator on the final amplifier

35. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

Select	Answer
A	6 bits
B	4 bits
C	10 bits
D	8 bits

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	A reduction in high frequency response
B	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
C	An echo caused by a long time delay
D	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal

37. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Select	Answer
A	Nyquist limit noise
B	Digital conversion noise
C	Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
D	Broadband noise

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave
B	A square wave
C	A cosine wave
D	A sawtooth wave

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	60
B	0.167
C	1.67
D	0.6

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
B	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
C	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
D	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	The signal can overpower interfering signals
B	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
C	Foreign language characters can be sent
D	Faster transmission rate

42. - E9A16

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	300 watts
B	317 watts
C	2000 watts
D	126 watts

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
B	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
C	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
D	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance

44. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Select	Answer
A	Cardioid
B	A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
C	Omni-directional
D	A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	More common-mode current is present on the feed line
B	SWR bandwidth increases
C	SWR bandwidth decreases
D	Gain is reduced

46. - E9E13

What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

Select	Answer
A	It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
B	It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
C	It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
D	It is used to divide power equally between two 50 ohm loads while maintaining 50 ohm input impedance

47. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very high impedance
B	The same as the generator output impedance
C	The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency
B	SWR
C	Points with constant resistance
D	Points with constant reactance

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A very sharp peak
B	High-radiation angle
C	A very sharp single null
D	Broad band response

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
B	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
C	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
D	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system