US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A06

Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

Select	Answer
A	At the highest frequency of the channel
B	At the lowest frequency of the channel
C	At the center frequency of the channel
D	On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	10 miles
B	30 miles
C	3 miles
D	1 mile

3. - E1C02

What is meant by automatic control of a station?

Select	Answer
A	A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
B	The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
C	Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
D	The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

Select	Answer
A	33 cm and 13 cm
B	70 cm and 33 cm
C	70 cm and 13 cm
D	70 cm only

5. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
B	The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
C	The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
D	Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
B	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
C	Communications that have a religious content
D	Communications in a language other than English

7. - E2A08

Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

Select	Answer
A	To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
B	To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
C	To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
D	To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users

8. - E2B12

How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
B	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
C	Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
D	Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
B	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
C	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
D	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

10. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
B	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
C	Storing and forwarding digital messages
D	High speed CW identification to avoid fading

11. - E2E13

Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?

Select	Answer
A	Your transmit frequency is incorrect
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The protocol version you are using is not the supported by the digital station
D	Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the Moon is full
B	When the Moon is at apogee
C	When the Moon is at perigee
D	When the MUF is above 30 MHz

13. - E3B08

What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Select	Answer
A	Long-path
B	Transequatorial
C	Sporadic-E
D	Gray-line

14. - E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

Select	Answer
A	AC voltage and impedance
B	VHF radio propagation
C	HF propagation
D	AC current and impedance

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A spectrum analyzer
B	A wattmeter
C	A time-domain reflectometer
D	A logic analyzer

16. - E4B08

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	High reluctance input
B	Low reluctance input
C	High impedance input
D	Low impedance input

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
B	It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
C	It reduces receiver sensitivity
D	It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals

18. - E4D11

Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
B	Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
C	The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
D	The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders

19. - E4E15

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Use of braided shielding material
B	Common mode currents on the shield and conductors
C	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
D	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield

20. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Parasitic effects are minimized
B	Internal voltages and circulating currents increase
C	Phase shift can become uncontrolled
D	Fewer components are needed for the same performance

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
B	The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
C	The inverse of reactance
D	The magnetic impedance of a circuit

22. - E5C09

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between the resistive and reactive components
B	The sum of the reactive and resistive components
C	Reactive component
D	Resistive component

23. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Power consumed in circuit Q
B	Wattless, nonproductive power
C	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
D	Power lost because of capacitor leakage

24. - E6A15

Which semiconductor material contains excess holes in the outer shell of electrons?

Select	Answer
A	Superconductor-type
B	P-type
C	Bipolar-type
D	N-type

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Zener
B	Point contact
C	Junction
D	Tunnel

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	2
C	4
D	1

27. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a slug core in a variable inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrite and brass
B	Polystyrene and polyethylene
C	Teflon and Delrin
D	Cobalt and aluminum

28. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon
B	Silicon dioxide
C	Gallium nitride
D	Silicon nitride

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.5 V
B	12 V
C	0.1 V
D	0.5 V

30. - E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

Select	Answer
A	It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
B	It adds two decimal numbers together
C	It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven segment LED display
D	It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse

31. - E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Select	Answer
A	Collector load
B	Emitter load
C	Fixed bias
D	Voltage regulation

32. - E7C01

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output
B	An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
C	Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
D	Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground

33. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

Select	Answer
A	Matching of day and night charge rates
B	Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge
C	Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
D	Prevention of battery undercharge

34. - E7E10

How does a diode detector function?

Select	Answer
A	By rectification and filtering of RF signals
B	By breakdown of the Zener voltage
C	By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
D	By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

35. - E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

Select	Answer
A	Data storage transfer rate
B	Missing codes and jitter
C	Sample clock phase noise
D	Reference voltage level and sample width in bits

36. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

Select	Answer
A	-0.23 volts
B	2.3 volts
C	-2.3 volts
D	0.23 volts

37. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
B	Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
C	Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
D	Wide-band AF and RF power amplification

38. - E8A13

Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Sequential sampling
B	Phase reversal
C	Harmonic regeneration
D	Level shifting

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
B	A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
C	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
D	A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
B	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
C	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
D	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	The signal can overpower interfering signals
B	Faster transmission rate
C	Foreign language characters can be sent
D	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases
B	It is essentially unaffected
C	It increases geometrically
D	It increases arithmetically

43. - E9B08

How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Select	Answer
A	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
B	Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
C	Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
D	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna

44. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

Select	Answer
A	The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
B	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
C	The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
D	The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

45. - E9D03

Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	As close to the transmitter as possible
B	At a voltage node
C	Near the center of the vertical radiator
D	As low as possible on the vertical radiator

46. - E9E05

How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
B	The driven element reactance must be capacitive
C	The driven element reactance must be inductive
D	The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

47. - E9F02

Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The line length
B	The center conductor resistivity
C	The termination impedance
D	Dielectric materials used in the line

48. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and impedance
B	Resistance and voltage
C	Resistance and reactance
D	Reactance and voltage

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
B	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
C	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
D	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	Signal Amplification Rating
B	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
C	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
D	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-2

Figure E7-4