US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
C	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
D	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	10 miles
B	3 miles
C	30 miles
D	1 mile

3. - E1C13

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

Select	Answer
A	You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
B	The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
C	You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
D	You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

Select	Answer
A	70 cm and 13 cm
B	70 cm only
C	70 cm and 33 cm
D	33 cm and 13 cm

5. - E1E12

What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Select	Answer
A	Destroy the application form
B	Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
C	Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
D	Return the application document to the examinee

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	All privileges of the Extra Class license
B	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
C	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
D	None, they must obtain a U.S. license

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
B	435 MHz - 438 MHz
C	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
D	144 MHz - 146 MHz

8. - E2B08

Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Select	Answer
A	A separate VHF or UHF audio link
B	Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Frequency modulation of the video carrier

9. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

Select	Answer
A	Send your full call sign and grid square
B	Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
C	Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
D	Send your full call sign once or twice

10. - E2D04

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
B	To upload operational software for the transponder
C	To delay download of telemetry between satellites
D	To relay messages between satellites

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
B	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
C	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
D	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

12. - E3A04

What do Hepburn maps predict?

Select	Answer
A	Sporadic E propagation
B	Probability of tropospheric propagation
C	Locations of auroral reflecting zones
D	Likelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts

13. - E3B13

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

Select	Answer
A	Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
B	The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
C	The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
D	Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords

14. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Elliptical
B	Circular
C	Horizontal
D	Vertical

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
B	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

16. - E4B11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Loosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
B	Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
C	Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
D	Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector

17. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

Select	Answer
A	15.210 MHz
B	14.445 MHz
C	14.755 MHz
D	13.845 MHz

18. - E4D11

Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
B	Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
C	Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
D	The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	Power line noise
B	Ignition noise
C	Broadband white noise
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
B	The voltage and current are in phase
C	The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D	The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	G
B	X
C	Y
D	B

22. - E5C03

Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	A negative phase angle
B	A positive phase angle
C	A positive real part
D	A negative real part

23. - E5D03

What is microstrip?

Select	Answer
A	Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
B	Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
C	Miniature coax used for low power applications
D	Lightweight transmission line made of common zip cord

24. - E6A15

Which semiconductor material contains excess holes in the outer shell of electrons?

Select	Answer
A	N-type
B	P-type
C	Bipolar-type
D	Superconductor-type

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a constant voltage source
B	As an RF switch
C	As a constant current source
D	As a high voltage rectifier

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
B	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
C	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false
D	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks

27. - E6D05

What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered-iron in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
B	Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
C	Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
D	Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeability

28. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

Select	Answer
A	PLCC
B	Ball grid array
C	SOT
D	DIP

29. - E6F01

What is photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
B	The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
C	The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
D	The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Negative logic
B	Positive Logic
C	Assertive Logic
D	Reverse Logic

31. - E7B15

What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Neutralization
B	Select transistors with high beta
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Use a resistor in series with the emitter

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Select	Answer
A	Cascode
B	Pi-L
C	Pi
D	Omega

33. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

Select	Answer
A	Matching of day and night charge rates
B	Prevention of battery undercharge
C	Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge
D	Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge

34. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Two and four times the original frequency
B	1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
C	The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
D	The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	Instantaneous and Quenched
B	In-phase and Quadrature
C	Inactive and Quiescent
D	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable

36. - E7G07

What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	24
B	47
C	0.21
D	94

37. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through link coupling
B	Through a tapped coil
C	Through a neutralizing capacitor
D	Through a capacitive divider

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By using a grid dip meter
B	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C	By using an absorption wave meter
D	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

39. - E8B01

What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM compressibility
B	Modulation index
C	Percentage of modulation
D	Quieting index

40. - E8C10

What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits

Select	Answer
A	It increases security
B	It facilitates error detection
C	It has more resolution than simple binary
D	It has more possible states than simple binary

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
B	Signal to noise ratio
C	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
D	Baud rate

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It is essentially unaffected
B	It increases arithmetically
C	It increases geometrically
D	It decreases

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
B	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
C	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
D	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period

44. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

Select	Answer
A	The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
B	The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
C	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
D	The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The front-to-back ratio increases
B	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
C	The SWR is reduced
D	The front-to-back ratio decreases

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma match
B	The epsilon match
C	The stub match
D	The delta match

47. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Select	Answer
A	The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
B	Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
C	The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
D	Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

48. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

Select	Answer
A	In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
B	In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
C	In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
D	In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
B	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
C	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
D	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction

50. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

Select	Answer
A	Polychlorinated Biphenyls
B	Polyethylene
C	Polytetrafluroethylene
D	Polymorphic silicon

Figure E7-4