US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A09

What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
B	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
C	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
D	Discontinue forwarding all messages

2. - E1B05

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

Select	Answer
A	An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
B	An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
C	An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
D	An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

3. - E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

Select	Answer
A	3 minutes
B	10 minutes
C	5 minutes
D	30 seconds

4. - E1D03

What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
B	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere
C	An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
D	An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
B	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team
C	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
D	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
B	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
C	All privileges of the Extra Class license
D	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	144 MHz - 146 MHz
B	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
C	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
D	435 MHz - 438 MHz

8. - E2B05

Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
B	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
C	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
D	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

9. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

Select	Answer
A	Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
B	Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
C	Contacts using tactical call signs
D	Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.

10. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	Hellschreiber
B	APRS
C	FSK441
D	WSPR

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	ALE can use any type of control
B	Remote
C	Local
D	Automatic

12. - E3A06

Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Rain droplets must be within the E layer
B	The rain must be within radio range of both stations
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Rain droplets must be electrically charged

13. - E3B07

Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

Select	Answer
A	High D layer absorption
B	Receipt of a signal by more than one path
C	Meteor scatter
D	Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF

14. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

Select	Answer
A	Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
B	Higher levels of solar UV radiation
C	Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
D	An increase in the critical frequency

15. - E4A04

What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the interface of the interface circuit
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Amount of memory on the soundcard
D	Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard

16. - E4B08

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Low impedance input
B	Low reluctance input
C	High reluctance input
D	High impedance input

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The minimum discernible signal
B	The meter display sensitivity
C	The multiplex distortion stability
D	The maximum detectable spectrum

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
B	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
C	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
D	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	Broadband white noise
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Power line noise
D	Ignition noise

20. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
B	Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
C	Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
D	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance

21. - E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B	14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C	14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D	76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

22. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Polar coordinates
B	Maidenhead grid
C	Faraday grid
D	Elliptical coordinates

23. - E5D10

How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B	By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
C	By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
D	By dividing the reactive power by the power factor

24. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

Select	Answer
A	Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
B	Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
C	Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
D	Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	CMOS-field effect
B	Electrolytic rectifier
C	Metal-semiconductor junction
D	Thermionic emission diode

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false
B	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
C	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
D	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
B	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
C	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
D	The inductor windings are over coupled

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	MMICs require no operating bias
B	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
C	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

29. - E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
B	An LED and a phototransistor
C	An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
D	A lens and a photomultiplier

30. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Negative logic
B	Assertive Logic
C	Reverse Logic
D	Positive Logic

31. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
B	At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
C	At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
D	Where the load line intersects the voltage axis

32. - E7C14

Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Video
C	Meteor scatter
D	Single-Sideband voice

33. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
B	To allow for remote control of the power supply
C	To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
D	To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually

34. - E7E11

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	Phase comparator
C	Discriminator
D	Phase detector

35. - E7F15

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

Select	Answer
A	FIR filters delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
B	FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
C	All of these choices are correct
D	FIR filters can respond faster to impulses

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
B	For smoothing power supply output
C	As an audio filter in a receiver
D	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
B	A phase locked loop synthesizer
C	A direct digital synthesizer
D	A hybrid synthesizer

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By using a grid dip meter
B	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
C	By using an absorption wave meter
D	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter

39. - E8B01

What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation index
B	FM compressibility
C	Percentage of modulation
D	Quieting index

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
B	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
C	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
D	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

41. - E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

Select	Answer
A	It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
B	It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
C	It includes built in error correction features
D	It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent

43. - E9B09

What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual impedance analysis
B	Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
C	Graphical analysis
D	Method of Moments

44. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

Select	Answer
A	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
B	The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
C	The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
D	The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction

45. - E9D10

What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
B	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
C	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
D	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases

46. - E9E05

How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
B	The driven element reactance must be capacitive
C	The driven element reactance must be inductive
D	The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

47. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very high impedance
B	Very low impedance
C	The same as the generator output impedance
D	The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

48. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
C	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
D	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
B	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
C	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
D	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

50. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Select	Answer
A	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
B	Microwaves are ionizing radiation
C	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
D	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels