US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
B	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

Select	Answer
A	At least 53 dB below
B	At least 73 dB below
C	At least 63 dB below
D	At least 43 dB below

3. - E1C13

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

Select	Answer
A	You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
B	You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
C	The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
D	You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
B	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	A sentence of up to one year in prison
B	All of these choices are correct
C	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
D	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant

6. - E1F10

What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

Select	Answer
A	1.5 W
B	1 W
C	1.5 kW
D	10 W

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From east to west
B	From south to north
C	From west to east
D	From north to south

8. - E2B13

How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

Select	Answer
A	128 or 256
B	30 or 60
C	180 or 360
D	60 or 100

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Select	Answer
A	Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
B	Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
C	Switch to a lower frequency HF band
D	Switch to a higher frequency HF band

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
B	Polar coordinates
C	Time and frequency
D	Latitude and longitude

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	It depends on the lunar phase
B	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
C	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
D	Stations take turns on alternate days

12. - E3A15

What is an electromagnetic wave?

Select	Answer
A	A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
B	A wave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
C	A wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles to each other
D	A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

13. - E3B12

What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Successive ionospheric reflections without an intermediate reflection from the ground
B	Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
C	Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
D	Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class X
B	Class M
C	Class B
D	Class A

15. - E4A01

Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	Sample resolution
B	Input impedance
C	Input capacitance
D	Sampling rate

16. - E4B05

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	1465.20 Hz
B	146.52 Hz
C	146.52 kHz
D	10 Hz

17. - E4C12

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Filter ringing
B	Thermal-noise distortion
C	Undesired signals may be heard
D	Output-offset overshoot

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Quieting
B	Squelch gain rollback
C	Desensitization
D	Cross-modulation interference

19. - E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Select	Answer
A	Meteor showers
B	Solar radio frequency emissions
C	Thunderstorms
D	Geomagnetic storms

20. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	1.78 MHz
B	22.36 MHz
C	44.72 MHz
D	3.56 MHz

21. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B	14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C	68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D	68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C14

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 5
B	Point 4
C	Point 2
D	Point 6

23. - E5D17

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	1600 watts
B	200 watts
C	1000 watts
D	600 watts

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
B	Common Mode Organic Silicon
C	Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
D	Common Mode Oscillating System

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	7
C	5
D	6

26. - E6C13

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
B	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
C	It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
D	All of these choices are correct

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
B	The inductor windings are over coupled
C	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
D	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover

28. - E6E12

Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a low-pass frequency response
B	Enhanced sensitivity to light
C	High-voltage insulating ability
D	Better dissipation of heat

29. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	The output RF power divided by the input DC power
B	The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
C	The effective payback period
D	The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

30. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Select	Answer
A	Monostable multivibrator
B	J-K flip-flop
C	T flip-flop
D	Astable multivibrator

31. - E7B14

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
B	Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
C	Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
D	The power transistor is at saturation or cut off most of the time, resulting in low power dissipation

32. - E7C03

What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a regular Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Greater harmonic suppression
B	Higher efficiency
C	Greater transformation range
D	Lower losses

33. - E7D11

What circuit element is controlled by a series analog voltage regulator to maintain a constant output voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Reference voltage
B	Error amplifier
C	Pass transistor
D	Switching inductance

34. - E7E10

How does a diode detector function?

Select	Answer
A	By breakdown of the Zener voltage
B	By rectification and filtering of RF signals
C	By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
D	By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

35. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters?

Select	Answer
A	Converting data to binary code decimal form
B	Removing unnecessary significant digits
C	Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
D	Attenuating the signal

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	Very low
C	1000 ohms
D	Very high

37. - E7H14

What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
B	An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
C	An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
D	An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator

38. - E8A12

What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Select	Answer
A	Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
B	Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
C	Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
D	All of these choices are correct

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	High speed digital modes
B	Extremely low-power contacts
C	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
D	EME

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	They are the same
B	Baud is only used for RTTY
C	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
D	Baud is twice the symbol rate

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
B	The signal can overpower interfering signals
C	Faster transmission rate
D	Foreign language characters can be sent

42. - E9A17

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	63.2 watts
B	252 watts
C	632 watts
D	159 watts

43. - E9B16

How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	7
C	3
D	1

44. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Select	Answer
A	A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
B	Cardioid
C	A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
D	Omni-directional

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The front-to-back ratio increases
B	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
C	The front-to-back ratio decreases
D	The SWR is reduced

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The omega match
B	The gamma match
C	The delta match
D	The stub match

47. - E9F15

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	The same as the output impedance of the generator
D	Very high impedance

48. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

Select	Answer
A	The current axis
B	The reactance axis
C	The resistance axis
D	The voltage axis

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
B	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
C	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
D	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

Select	Answer
A	By the yellowish appearance of the gas
B	Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
C	By the odor
D	Only with a carbon monoxide detector

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3