US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
C	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
D	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

2. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
B	You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
C	No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
D	You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
C	A control operator must be present at the control point
D	A control operator need not be present at the control point

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
C	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
D	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

5. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Select	Answer
A	Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B	The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
C	The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
D	The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

6. - E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
B	To provide for experimental amateur communications
C	To provide additional spectrum for personal use
D	To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels

7. - E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

Select	Answer
A	LEO
B	Geostationary
C	Geomagnetic
D	HEO

8. - E2B13

How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

Select	Answer
A	128 or 256
B	180 or 360
C	60 or 100
D	30 or 60

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
B	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
C	To relay calls to and from a DX station
D	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

10. - E2D09

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
B	AMTOR
C	300 baud packet
D	PSK31

11. - E2E07

What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

Select	Answer
A	2.16 kHz
B	550 Hz
C	316 Hz
D	31 Hz

12. - E3A01

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
B	500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
C	5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
D	2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

13. - E3B10

What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

Select	Answer
A	In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
B	At midday, the Sun super heats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
C	At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption is low while E-layer and F-layer propagation remains high
D	At mid-afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

14. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Southward
B	Northward
C	Westward
D	Eastward

15. - E4A04

What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the interface of the interface circuit
B	Amount of memory on the soundcard
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard

16. - E4B13

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S12
B	S22
C	S21
D	S11

17. - E4C03

What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization
B	Cross-modulation interference
C	Capture effect
D	Frequency discrimination

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization
B	Squelch gain rollback
C	Cross-modulation interference
D	Quieting

19. - E4E07

How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

Select	Answer
A	By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
B	By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
C	By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
D	By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope

20. - E5A17

What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Matching bandwidth is increased
B	It has no effect on impedance matching
C	Matching bandwidth is decreased
D	Matching range is increased

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	G
C	B
D	Y

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

Select	Answer
A	The sine and cosine values
B	The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
C	The magnitude and phase of the point
D	The tangent and cotangent values

23. - E5D15

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.5
B	0.866
C	1.0
D	0.707

24. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	Corner frequency
B	Alpha cutoff frequency
C	Beta cutoff frequency
D	Alpha rejection frequency

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	CMOS-field effect
B	Metal-semiconductor junction
C	Thermionic emission diode
D	Electrolytic rectifier

26. - E6C09

What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

Select	Answer
A	A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
B	An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design
C	A device to control industrial equipment
D	Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactivity
B	Permeability
C	Thermal impedance
D	Resistance

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

Select	Answer
A	Radial lead
B	Surface mount
C	Axial lead
D	TO-220

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 V
B	1.5 V
C	12 V
D	0.5 V

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An "OR" gate
B	A clock
C	A flip-flop
D	An "AND" gate

31. - E7B14

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	The power transistor is at saturation or cut off most of the time, resulting in low power dissipation
B	Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
C	Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
D	Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits

32. - E7C09

What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?

Select	Answer
A	An automatic notch filter
B	A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
C	A special filter that emphasizes image responses
D	A filter that removes impulse noise E7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter

33. - E7D10

What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The inverter design does not require any output filtering
B	The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
C	It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
D	It uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to create free power from the unused portion of the AC cycle

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
B	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
C	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
D	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

35. - E7F12

What digital process is applied to I and Q signals in order to recover the baseband modulation information?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature mixing
B	Decimation
C	Signal conditioning
D	Fast Fourier Transform

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	14
B	0.07
C	28
D	7

37. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

Select	Answer
A	The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
B	The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
C	The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
D	The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
B	By using an absorption wave meter
C	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
D	By using a grid dip meter

39. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	2000
C	6000
D	1/3

40. - E8C02

What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link
B	The number of control characters in a message packet
C	The rate at which the waveform of a transmitted signal changes to convey information
D	The duration of each bit in a message sent over the air

41. - E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Select	Answer
A	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
B	The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
C	Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
D	The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker

42. - E9A16

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	317 watts
B	126 watts
C	300 watts
D	2000 watts

43. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	25 degrees
B	75 degrees
C	7.5 degrees
D	45 degrees

44. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

Select	Answer
A	Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
B	The high-angle radiation increases
C	The low-angle radiation increases
D	The low-angle radiation decreases

45. - E9D11

Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

Select	Answer
A	A cable with six or seven 18 gauge conductors in parallel
B	A wide flat copper strap
C	A resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
D	A single 12 gauge or 10 gauge stainless steel wire

46. - E9E01

What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

Select	Answer
A	The delta matching system
B	The gamma matching system
C	The omega matching system
D	The stub matching system

47. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	10 meters
B	15 meters
C	71 meters
D	20 meters

48. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
C	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
D	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
B	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
C	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
D	It should be one or more wavelengths long

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
B	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
C	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
D	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-2