US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A14

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	2.8 kHz
C	60 Hz
D	1.5 kHz

2. - E1B05

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

Select	Answer
A	An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
B	An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
C	An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
D	An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope

3. - E1C13

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

Select	Answer
A	The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
B	You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
C	You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
D	You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

4. - E1D03

What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
B	An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
C	An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
D	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere

5. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

Select	Answer
A	They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
B	They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
C	They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
D	They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions

6. - E1F10

What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

Select	Answer
A	1.5 kW
B	10 W
C	1 W
D	1.5 W

7. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Select	Answer
A	The location of the ground control station
B	The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
C	The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
D	Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

8. - E2B05

Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
B	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
C	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
D	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	The ARRL section of the remote station
B	/R# where # is the district of the remote station
C	No additional indicator is required
D	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located

10. - E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	AX.25
C	802.11
D	PACTOR

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR
B	RTTY
C	Hellschreiber
D	AMTOR

12. - E3A17

What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Select	Answer
A	Waves produced by a loop antenna
B	Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
C	Waves that circle the Earth
D	Waves with a rotating electric field

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Any time
B	Around sunrise
C	Early evening
D	Around sunset

14. - E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
B	Downward bending due to aurora refraction
C	E-region skip
D	D-region skip

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Match the antenna to the load
B	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
C	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B14

What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Select	Answer
A	Cross modulation occurs
B	Harmonics are generated
C	A less accurate reading results
D	Intermodulation distortion occurs

17. - E4C03

What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency discrimination
B	Capture effect
C	Desensitization
D	Cross-modulation interference

18. - E4D07

Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
B	The desired signal can no longer be heard
C	A reduction in apparent signal strength
D	A large increase in background noise

19. - E4E15

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield
B	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
C	Use of braided shielding material
D	Common mode currents on the shield and conductors

20. - E5A15

Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Higher self-resonant frequency
B	Lower losses
C	Lower reactance
D	Lower self-resonant frequency

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	G
B	X
C	Y
D	B

22. - E5C05

What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Near field diagram
B	Phasor diagram
C	Venn diagram
D	Far field diagram

23. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts
B	400 watts
C	80 watts
D	50 watts

24. - E6A15

Which semiconductor material contains excess holes in the outer shell of electrons?

Select	Answer
A	N-type
B	P-type
C	Bipolar-type
D	Superconductor-type

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a constant voltage source
B	As an RF switch
C	As a high voltage rectifier
D	As a constant current source

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false
B	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
C	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
D	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks

27. - E6D05

What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered-iron in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeability
B	Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
C	Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
D	Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Direct soldering
B	Virtual lead mounting
C	Surface mount
D	Stripped lead

29. - E6F12

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	Electrons
B	Holes
C	Protons
D	Photons

30. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

Select	Answer
A	It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
B	It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
C	It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
D	It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

31. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
B	Increased overall intelligibility
C	Reduced intermodulation products
D	Signal inversion

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals
B	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
C	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
D	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals

33. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

Select	Answer
A	A shunt current source
B	A shunt regulator
C	A series regulator
D	A constant current source

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
B	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
C	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
D	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	A Hilbert-transform filter
B	A crystal-lattice filter
C	A phase-inverting filter
D	An adaptive filter

36. - E7G12

What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
B	A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
C	A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
D	An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

37. - E7H14

What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
B	An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
C	An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
D	An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave
B	A cosine wave
C	A square wave
D	A sawtooth wave

39. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

Select	Answer
A	It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
B	It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
C	It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
D	It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

40. - E8C02

What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The duration of each bit in a message sent over the air
B	The rate at which the waveform of a transmitted signal changes to convey information
C	The number of control characters in a message packet
D	The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link

41. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	The generation of RF harmonics
B	More difficult to copy
C	The generation of key clicks
D	Limits data speed

42. - E9A15

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	1977 watts
B	286 watts
C	420 watts
D	78.7 watts

43. - E9B13

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Select	Answer
A	National Electrical Code
B	Numerical Electromagnetic Code
C	Next Element Comparison
D	Numeric Electrical Computation

44. - E9C15

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

Select	Answer
A	The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
B	The horizontal beam width decreases with height
C	The horizontal beam width increases with height
D	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height

45. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Greater structural strength
B	Improved radiation efficiency
C	Lower Q
D	Higher losses

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma match
B	The stub match
C	The delta match
D	The omega match

47. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 meters
B	10 meters
C	6.9 meters
D	50 meters

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance along transmission lines
B	Radio propagation
C	Radiation resistance
D	Antenna radiation pattern

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It has a bidirectional pattern
B	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
C	It receives equally well in all directions
D	It is non-rotatable

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
C	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
D	Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location