US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A03

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
B	No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge
C	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
D	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
B	Specific local government channels
C	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
D	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

3. - E1C01

What is a remotely controlled station?

Select	Answer
A	A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
B	A station operated away from its regular home location
C	A station operating under automatic control
D	A station controlled indirectly through a control link

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
B	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
C	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
D	All of these choices are correct

5. - E1E01

What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	5
C	4
D	2

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
B	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
C	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
D	All privileges of the Extra Class license

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
B	435 MHz - 438 MHz
C	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
D	144 MHz - 146 MHz

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	29.6 MHz
B	1255 MHz
C	14.230 MHz
D	52.525 MHz

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Select	Answer
A	To separate the calling stations from the DX station
B	Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
C	All of these choices are correct
D	To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Latitude and longitude
B	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
C	Time and frequency
D	Polar coordinates

11. - E2E01

Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
B	FSK
C	Spread spectrum
D	Pulse modulation

12. - E3A14

From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	East
B	South
C	North
D	West

13. - E3B08

What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Select	Answer
A	Gray-line
B	Long-path
C	Transequatorial
D	Sporadic-E

14. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	Very low solar activity
B	An extreme geomagnetic storm
C	Waning sunspot numbers
D	Moderate solar wind

15. - E4A15

What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

Select	Answer
A	It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
B	It can run on battery power for remote measurements
C	It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
D	It does not require an expensive high-precision time base

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Decade divider accuracy
B	Time base accuracy
C	Input attenuator accuracy
D	Temperature coefficient of the logic

17. - E4C11

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz
B	4.2 kHz
C	2.4 kHz
D	4.8 kHz

18. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
B	To store often-used frequencies
C	To provide a range of AGC time constants
D	To increase rejection of unwanted signals

19. - E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Select	Answer
A	Thunderstorms
B	Geomagnetic storms
C	Solar radio frequency emissions
D	Meteor showers

20. - E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
C	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D	High, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and current are in phase
B	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 3
B	Point 8
C	Point 1
D	Point 7

23. - E5D17

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	600 watts
B	1000 watts
C	1600 watts
D	200 watts

24. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	Corner frequency
B	Alpha cutoff frequency
C	Beta cutoff frequency
D	Alpha rejection frequency

25. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	A large region of intrinsic material
B	Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
C	Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
D	Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
B	Logic devices that utilize ternary math
C	Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
D	Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts

27. - E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
B	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage
C	Increased conductivity in the presence of light
D	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field

28. - E6E01

Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Select	Answer
A	It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
B	Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
C	It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
D	It is used in a battery charger circuit

29. - E6F14

Which of the following is true of LCD displays?

Select	Answer
A	They only display alphanumeric symbols
B	They may be hard view through polarized lenses
C	They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions
D	All of these choices are correct

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
B	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B02

What is a Class D amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
B	An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
C	A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
D	A frequency doubling amplifier

32. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

Select	Answer
A	A Chebyshev filter
B	A passive op-amp filter
C	An active LC filter
D	A Butterworth filter

33. - E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter follower
B	Linear voltage regulator
C	Switching voltage regulator
D	Grounded emitter amplifier

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
B	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
C	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
D	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Sample clock phase noise
B	Processor latency
C	Sample rate
D	Sample width in bits

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It increases linearly with increasing frequency
B	It does not vary with frequency
C	It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
D	It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

37. - E7H08

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	NP0 capacitors
B	Toroidal inductors
C	Wirewound resistors
D	Non-inductive resistors

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By using an absorption wave meter
B	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
C	By using a grid dip meter
D	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter

39. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B	It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
C	It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
D	It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
B	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
C	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
D	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

41. - E8D06

Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics on higher bands
B	Strong ALC action
C	Rapid signal fading
D	High reflected power

42. - E9A08

What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
B	The angle between the half-power radiation points
C	The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
D	Antenna length divided by the number of elements

43. - E9B08

How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Select	Answer
A	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
B	Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
C	Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
D	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	Cardioid
C	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
D	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

45. - E9D11

Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

Select	Answer
A	A resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
B	A single 12 gauge or 10 gauge stainless steel wire
C	A wide flat copper strap
D	A cable with six or seven 18 gauge conductors in parallel

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The omega match
B	The stub match
C	The delta match
D	The gamma match

47. - E9F14

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Very high impedance
D	The same as the output impedance of the generator

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance circles and reactance arcs
B	Voltage circles and current arcs
C	Voltage lines and current chords
D	Resistance lines and reactance chords

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
B	It should be one or more wavelengths long
C	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
D	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Uranium Hexafluoride
B	Beryllium Oxide
C	Mica
D	Zinc oxide

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-3