US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
B	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
C	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
D	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
B	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
D	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC

3. - E1C10

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
B	Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C	Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
D	Only beacon, repeater or space stations

4. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
C	Any amateur station designated by NASA
D	Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
B	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
C	In FCC Part 97
D	In a question pool maintained by the FCC

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any licensed amateur operator

7. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

Select	Answer
A	Which sideband to use
B	The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
C	FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
D	The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

8. - E2B11

What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

Select	Answer
A	To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
B	To identify the SSTV mode being used
C	To provide vertical synchronization
D	To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
B	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
C	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
D	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

10. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Unnumbered Information
B	Connect
C	Acknowledgement
D	Disconnect

11. - E2E01

Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
B	Pulse modulation
C	FSK
D	Spread spectrum

12. - E3A08

When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The E layer
C	The F2 layer
D	The F1 layer

13. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
B	Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
C	Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
D	Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

14. - E3C03

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?

Select	Answer
A	NVIS
B	Polar paths
C	Sporadic-E
D	Transequatorial propagation

15. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplitude and frequency
B	RF amplitude and time
C	SWR and time
D	SWR and frequency

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Temperature coefficient of the logic
B	Input attenuator accuracy
C	Time base accuracy
D	Decade divider accuracy

17. - E4C13

How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
D	It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing

18. - E4D14

Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Raise the receiver IF frequency
B	Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
C	Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
D	Increase the receiver front end gain

19. - E4E01

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Ignition noise
B	Heterodyne interference
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Broadband white noise

20. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B	The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C	The voltage and current are in phase
D	The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Y
C	G
D	X

22. - E5C07

What is a vector?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of the sine function
B	The inverse of the tangent function
C	The value of a quantity that changes over time
D	A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component

23. - E5D17

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts
B	1600 watts
C	200 watts
D	600 watts

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	Any FET without a channel
B	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
C	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
D	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

25. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
B	Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
C	Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
D	A large region of intrinsic material

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
B	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
C	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false
D	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time

27. - E6D02

What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

Select	Answer
A	Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
B	Motional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in parallel with a shunt capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
C	Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in series
D	Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Stripped lead
B	Virtual lead mounting
C	Surface mount
D	Direct soldering

29. - E6F07

What is a solid state relay?

Select	Answer
A	A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
B	A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
C	A passive delay line
D	A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An "OR" gate
B	A flip-flop
C	A clock
D	An "AND" gate

31. - E7B02

What is a Class D amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency doubling amplifier
B	A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
C	A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
D	An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency

32. - E7C13

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
B	The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
C	Pi-networks have fewer components
D	Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output

33. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
B	To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
C	To allow for remote control of the power supply
D	To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage

34. - E7E11

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	Phase comparator
C	Discriminator
D	Phase detector

35. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

Select	Answer
A	Provide access for debugging software
B	To reduce excess signal pressure levels
C	Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
D	Select the point at which baseband signals are generated

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	0.03
C	76
D	38

37. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

Select	Answer
A	Use of NP0 capacitors
B	Eliminating noise on the oscillator's power supply
C	Using the oscillator only for CW and digital signals
D	Mechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
B	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C	By using an absorption wave meter
D	By using a grid dip meter

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	2.14
B	0.47
C	0.214
D	47

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
B	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
C	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
D	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Baud rate
B	Signal to noise ratio
C	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
D	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)

42. - E9A04

Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
B	Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
C	Transmission-line length
D	Sunspot activity and time of day

43. - E9B16

How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	1
C	4
D	7

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B	A dipole configured to provide forward gain
C	A type of ground-plane antenna
D	A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop

45. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
B	A 50 ohm resistor connected to ground
C	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
D	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke

46. - E9E12

What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

Select	Answer
A	It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
B	It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
C	It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
D	It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern

47. - E9F02

Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The line length
B	The termination impedance
C	Dielectric materials used in the line
D	The center conductor resistivity

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage lines and current chords
B	Voltage circles and current arcs
C	Resistance circles and reactance arcs
D	Resistance lines and reactance chords

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A very sharp single null
B	A very sharp peak
C	Broad band response
D	High-radiation angle

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
B	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
C	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
D	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-2