US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A14

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	1.5 kHz
C	2.8 kHz
D	60 Hz

2. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
B	You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
C	You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
D	No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
B	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
C	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
D	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
B	Any class with appropriate operator privileges
C	All except Technician Class
D	Only Amateur Extra Class

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
B	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team
C	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed
D	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations

6. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

Select	Answer
A	A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
D	The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication

7. - E2A02

What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From west to east
B	From east to west
C	From north to south
D	From south to north

8. - E2B15

What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Select	Answer
A	Specific tone amplitudes
B	Specific tone frequencies
C	Elapsed time
D	A two-tone signal

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Select	Answer
A	To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
D	To separate the calling stations from the DX station

10. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	JT65
B	PACTOR III
C	Olivia
D	FSK441

11. - E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	300-baud packet
C	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
D	PSK31

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the MUF is above 30 MHz
B	When the Moon is at apogee
C	When the Moon is full
D	When the Moon is at perigee

13. - E3B14

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They become elliptically polarized
B	Their polarization is randomly modified
C	They are bent toward the magnetic poles
D	They become phase-locked

14. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately twice the distance
B	By approximately four times the distance
C	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
D	By approximately 15 percent of the distance

15. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplitude and time
B	RF amplitude and frequency
C	SWR and frequency
D	SWR and time

16. - E4B11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
B	Loosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
C	Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
D	Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

17. - E4C12

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Filter ringing
B	Undesired signals may be heard
C	Output-offset overshoot
D	Thermal-noise distortion

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Amplifier desensitization
B	Neutralization
C	Intermodulation interference
D	Adjacent channel interference

19. - E4E13

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Select	Answer
A	A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
B	Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
C	A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	3.56 MHz
B	44.72 MHz
C	1.78 MHz
D	22.36 MHz

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The sign is reversed
B	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
C	It is unchanged
D	It is shifted by 90 degrees

22. - E5C07

What is a vector?

Select	Answer
A	A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component
B	The inverse of the tangent function
C	The inverse of the sine function
D	The value of a quantity that changes over time

23. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Power lost because of capacitor leakage
B	Wattless, nonproductive power
C	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
D	Power consumed in circuit Q

24. - E6A14

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

Select	Answer
A	They are both high impedance
B	They are both low impedance
C	An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
D	An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance

25. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

Select	Answer
A	As balanced mixers in FM generation
B	As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C	As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
D	As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	High speed operation
B	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
C	More efficient arithmetic operations
D	Low power consumption

27. - E6D02

What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

Select	Answer
A	Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in series
B	Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
C	Motional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in parallel with a shunt capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
D	Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
B	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
C	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D	MMICs require no operating bias

29. - E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
B	The effective payback period
C	The output RF power divided by the input DC power
D	The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An "OR" gate
B	An "AND" gate
C	A flip-flop
D	A clock

31. - E7B01

For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Select	Answer
A	More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
B	Less than 180 degrees
C	The entire cycle
D	Exactly 180 degrees

32. - E7C03

What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a regular Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Greater harmonic suppression
B	Lower losses
C	Higher efficiency
D	Greater transformation range

33. - E7D12

What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
B	Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
C	Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
D	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
B	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
C	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
D	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	An adaptive filter
B	A crystal-lattice filter
C	A Hilbert-transform filter
D	A phase-inverting filter

36. - E7G12

What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
B	A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
C	A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
D	An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a neutralizing capacitor
B	Through a quartz crystal
C	Through a tapped coil
D	Through link coupling

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
B	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
C	By using a grid dip meter
D	By using an absorption wave meter

39. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	0.3
C	1000
D	3000

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 Hz
B	0.5 kHz
C	0.3 kHz
D	1.0 kHz

41. - E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

Select	Answer
A	Ground loops
B	Excessive numbers of retries
C	Bit errors in the modem
D	Excessive transmit audio levels

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
B	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B07

How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

Select	Answer
A	The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
B	The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna
C	They are the same
D	The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
C	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower Q
B	Improved radiation efficiency
C	Higher losses
D	Greater structural strength

46. - E9E09

Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Gamma match
C	Hairpin match
D	Double-bazooka match

47. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
C	The index of shielding for coaxial cable
D	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

48. - E9G08

What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
B	Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
C	Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
D	Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
B	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
C	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
D	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent
B	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
C	Only the most powerful transmitter
D	Only commercial transmitters