US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
D	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	10 miles
B	1 mile
C	30 miles
D	3 miles

3. - E1C10

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
B	Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
C	Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
D	Only beacon, repeater or space stations

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
D	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC

5. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Select	Answer
A	Employees of the VE
B	Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Friends of the VE

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From east to west
B	From south to north
C	From west to east
D	From north to south

8. - E2B16

Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

Select	Answer
A	DRM
B	PAL
C	NTSC
D	Scottie

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Select	Answer
A	Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
B	Switch to a higher frequency HF band
C	Switch to a lower frequency HF band
D	Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band

10. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441
B	APRS
C	WSPR
D	Hellschreiber

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space signal have been inverted
B	The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
C	One of the signal filters is saturated
D	Selective fading has occurred

12. - E3A14

From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	East
B	West
C	North
D	South

13. - E3B07

Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
B	Meteor scatter
C	Receipt of a signal by more than one path
D	High D layer absorption

14. - E3C12

How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It decreases
C	It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
D	It stays the same

15. - E4A09

When using a computer's soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the sample rate
B	One-half the sample rate
C	It depends on how the data is stored internally
D	One-tenth the sample rate

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Time base accuracy
B	Input attenuator accuracy
C	Decade divider accuracy
D	Temperature coefficient of the logic

17. - E4C05

What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
B	The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
C	The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
D	The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

18. - E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
B	146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
C	173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
D	146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz

19. - E4E07

How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

Select	Answer
A	By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
B	By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C	By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
D	By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio

20. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B	The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C	The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
D	The voltage and current are in phase

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of impedance
B	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
C	The unit used for Q factor
D	The turns ratio of a transformer

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 3
B	Point 1
C	Point 8
D	Point 7

23. - E5D05

Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?

Select	Answer
A	Permeability
B	Malleability
C	Inductance
D	Permittivity

24. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Select	Answer
A	Donor impurity
B	Insulator impurity
C	Acceptor impurity
D	N-type impurity

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a constant voltage source
B	As an RF switch
C	As a high voltage rectifier
D	As a constant current source

26. - E6C12

What is BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
B	An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
C	A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
D	A FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Thermal impedance
B	Resistance
C	Reactivity
D	Permeability

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Stripped lead
B	Virtual lead mounting
C	Direct soldering
D	Surface mount

29. - E6F13

What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?

Select	Answer
A	A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
B	A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied
C	A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
D	A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Assertive Logic
B	Negative logic
C	Reverse Logic
D	Positive Logic

31. - E7B16

What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low efficiency
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Creation of parasitic oscillations
D	Transmission of spurious signals

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Select	Answer
A	Pi
B	Pi-L
C	Cascode
D	Omega

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
B	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
C	It has a ramp voltage as its output
D	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

34. - E7E11

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

Select	Answer
A	Discriminator
B	Phase comparator
C	Phase detector
D	Product detector

35. - E7F03

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	An adaptive filter
B	A notch filter
C	An elliptical filter
D	A Hilbert-transform filter

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	0.07
B	14
C	28
D	7

37. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

Select	Answer
A	Eliminating noise on the oscillator's power supply
B	Using the oscillator only for CW and digital signals
C	Mechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
D	Use of NP0 capacitors

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave
B	A sine wave
C	A cosine wave
D	A sawtooth wave

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
B	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
C	A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
D	A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	5.76 kHz
B	4.8 kHz
C	9.6 kHz
D	15.36 kHz

41. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	The generation of key clicks
B	The generation of RF harmonics
C	Limits data speed
D	More difficult to copy

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It increases geometrically
B	It increases arithmetically
C	It decreases
D	It is essentially unaffected

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Antenna gain
D	SWR vs frequency charts

44. - E9C05

What is an OCFD antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters
B	A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
C	A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
D	A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity

45. - E9D01

How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases by 3 dB
B	Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C	Gain increases by 6 dB
D	Gain does not change

46. - E9E01

What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

Select	Answer
A	The delta matching system
B	The gamma matching system
C	The omega matching system
D	The stub matching system

47. - E9F02

Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The line length
B	Dielectric materials used in the line
C	The center conductor resistivity
D	The termination impedance

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Smith chart
B	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
C	Free space radiation directivity chart
D	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
B	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
C	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
D	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio

50. - E0A03

Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
B	Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
C	All of the choices are correct
D	Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-3