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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

SelectAnswer
A50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
D100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

SelectAnswer
AA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
BAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
CA letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
DA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

SelectAnswer
AAn indication of increased antenna reflected power
BAn international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
CA forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
DThe internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BThe space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
CThe space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
DThe space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BA fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
CA sentence of up to one year in prison
DRevocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant

6. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
BA station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
CThe transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
DAll of these choices are correct

7. - E2A03

What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

SelectAnswer
AThe point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
BThe time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
CThe time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
DThe point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

8. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

SelectAnswer
ASpread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
BA type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
CAmplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
DNarrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

9. - E2C12

What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

SelectAnswer
AWait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
BWait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
CSwitch to a lower frequency HF band
DSwitch to a higher frequency HF band

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BIt supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
CIt can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
DIt controls the receiver to track Doppler shift

11. - E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
AMFSK16
B170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
CPSK31
D300-baud packet

12. - E3A06

Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?

SelectAnswer
ARain droplets must be electrically charged
BThe rain must be within radio range of both stations
CRain droplets must be within the E layer
DAll of these choices are correct

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
A1000 miles
B7500 miles
C2500 miles
D5000 miles

14. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

SelectAnswer
ADirection and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
BGeomagnetic field stability
CDuration of long-delayed echoes
DCritical frequency for vertical transmissions

15. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing in a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?

SelectAnswer
AFalse signals are displayed
BAll signals will have a DC offset
CFalse triggering occurs
DCalibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
ATemperature coefficient of the logic
BDecade divider accuracy
CTime base accuracy
DInput attenuator accuracy

17. - E4C08

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

SelectAnswer
AOne-half the maximum sampling buffer size
BThe reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
CThe maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
DOne-half the maximum sample rate

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

SelectAnswer
AAmplifier desensitization
BAdjacent channel interference
CIntermodulation interference
DNeutralization

19. - E4E15

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

SelectAnswer
ACommon mode currents on the shield and conductors
BUse of braided shielding material
CLow inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
DTying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield

20. - E5A01

What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

SelectAnswer
AConductance
BResonance
CCapacitance
DResistance

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of magnetic field to electric field
BA measure of the efficiency of a transformer
CThe inverse of reactance
DThe magnetic impedance of a circuit

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe magnitude and phase of the point
BThe coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
CThe sine and cosine values
DThe tangent and cotangent values

23. - E5D08

What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

SelectAnswer
AElectromechanical energy
BKinetic energy
CThermodynamic energy
DPotential energy

24. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?

SelectAnswer
AIn very low frequency RF circuits
BIn microwave circuits
CIn high-current rectifier circuits
DIn high-power audio circuits

25. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

SelectAnswer
AAn internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
BA negative resistance region
CA constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
DA constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage

26. - E6C14

What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?

SelectAnswer
AMany similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types
BAll of these choices are correct
CA PGA contains its own internal power supply
DComplex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

SelectAnswer
AThe inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
BThe inductor windings are over coupled
CThe ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
DAdjacent inductors become over-coupled

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

SelectAnswer
AAxial lead
BSurface mount
CTO-220
DRadial lead

29. - E6F14

Which of the following is true of LCD displays?

SelectAnswer
AThey may be hard view through polarized lenses
BThey are hard to view in high ambient light conditions
CThey only display alphanumeric symbols
DAll of these choices are correct

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
BIt produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
CIt produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
DIt produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

SelectAnswer
AFixed bias
BSelf bias
COutput load resistor
DEmitter bypass

32. - E7C13

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

SelectAnswer
APi-networks have fewer components
BThe Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
CL-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
DPi-networks are designed for balanced input and output

33. - E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?

SelectAnswer
ATo improve output voltage regulation
BTo balance the low-voltage filament windings
CTo cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
DTo boost the amount of output current

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy driving a product detector with a DSB signal
BBy using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
CBy using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
DBy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter

35. - E7F09

Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?

SelectAnswer
AIt removes low frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration
BIt notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
CIt peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
DIt removes high-frequency signal components which would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

SelectAnswer
AAs a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
BAs an audio filter in a receiver
CFor smoothing power supply output
DAs a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

SelectAnswer
ADistortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
BAn IC used for amplifying microphone signals
CExcess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
DChanges in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration

38. - E8A12

What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BDigital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
CDigital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
DLess complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

SelectAnswer
ATwo or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
BTwo or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
CTwo or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
DTwo or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
BBaud is only used for RTTY
CThey are the same
DBaud is twice the symbol rate

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

SelectAnswer
ASignal to noise ratio
BBaud rate
CRepeat Request Rate (RRR)
DIntermodulation Distortion (IMD)

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

SelectAnswer
AIt decreases
BIt is essentially unaffected
CIt increases arithmetically
DIt increases geometrically

43. - E9B16

How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

SelectAnswer
A7
B3
C4
D1

44. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

SelectAnswer
A450 ohms
B50 ohms
C300 ohms
D72 ohms

45. - E9D11

Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

SelectAnswer
AA resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
BA wide flat copper strap
CA cable with six or seven 18 gauge conductors in parallel
DA single 12 gauge or 10 gauge stainless steel wire

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

SelectAnswer
AVelocity factor
BCharacteristic impedance
CDielectric constant
DReflection coefficient

47. - E9F04

What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

SelectAnswer
A0.10
B0.66
C2.70
D0.30

48. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

SelectAnswer
AIn fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
BIn fractions of antenna electrical frequency
CIn fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
DIn fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a bidirectional pattern
BIt receives equally well in all directions
CIt is non-rotatable
DIt is practical for use only on VHF bands

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

SelectAnswer
AE field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
BGround reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
CThe body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
DAll of these choices are correct

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-2