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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

SelectAnswer
AAny person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
BOnly a person with an FCC Marine Radio
COnly a person named in an amateur station license grant
DAny person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 63 dB below
BAt least 43 dB below
CAt least 73 dB below
DAt least 53 dB below

3. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

SelectAnswer
AOnly when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
BWhen approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
CWhen agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
DNever

4. - E1D03

What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

SelectAnswer
AAn amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
BAn amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
CAn amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere
DAn amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station

5. - E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

SelectAnswer
AImmediately terminate the candidate's examination
BImmediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
CAllow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
DWarn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

SelectAnswer
AOnly Amateur Extra Class operators
BOnly General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
CAny licensed amateur operator
DOnly Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

7. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

SelectAnswer
APower limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
BThe uplink and downlink frequency ranges
CThe polarization of uplink and downlink signals
DThe location of the ground control station

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

SelectAnswer
A1255 MHz
B52.525 MHz
C14.230 MHz
D29.6 MHz

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

SelectAnswer
ATo separate the calling stations from the DX station
BAll of these choices are correct
CTo improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
DBecause the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations

10. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

SelectAnswer
AHigh speed CW identification to avoid fading
BJudging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
CTime synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
DStoring and forwarding digital messages

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

SelectAnswer
AHellschreiber
BRTTY
CPACTOR
DAMTOR

12. - E3A01

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

SelectAnswer
A500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
B12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
C5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
D2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
A2500 miles
B1000 miles
C5000 miles
D7500 miles

14. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
BThe ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
CThe solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels
DUV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index

15. - E4A04

What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?

SelectAnswer
AQ of the interface of the interface circuit
BAll of these choices are correct
CAnalog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard
DAmount of memory on the soundcard

16. - E4B14

What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

SelectAnswer
AHarmonics are generated
BA less accurate reading results
CCross modulation occurs
DIntermodulation distortion occurs

17. - E4C17

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's linearity?

SelectAnswer
ARAM speed used for data storage
BCPU register width in bits
CAnti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
DAnalog-to-digital converter sample width in bits

18. - E4D14

Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

SelectAnswer
ARaise the receiver IF frequency
BDecrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
CIncrease the receiver front end gain
DSwitch from fast AGC to slow AGC

19. - E4E07

How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

SelectAnswer
ABy checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
BBy turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
CBy observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
DBy observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

SelectAnswer
AR/L
BMaximum
CMinimum
DL/R

21. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A220 seconds
B110 seconds
C440 seconds
D55 seconds

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe sine and cosine values
BThe coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
CThe tangent and cotangent values
DThe magnitude and phase of the point

23. - E5D03

What is microstrip?

SelectAnswer
AMiniature coax used for low power applications
BPrecision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
CShort lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
DLightweight transmission line made of common zip cord

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

SelectAnswer
AAny FET without a channel
BAn FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
CAn FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
DAny FET for which holes are the majority carriers

25. - E6B02

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

SelectAnswer
ALess forward voltage drop
BMuch higher reverse voltage breakdown
CEnhanced carrier retention time
DControlled reverse avalanche voltage

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

SelectAnswer
AProprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
BLogic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
CLow power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
DLogic devices that utilize ternary math

27. - E6D02

What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

SelectAnswer
AMotional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
BMotional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
CMotional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in parallel with a shunt capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
DMotional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in series

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

SelectAnswer
AStripped lead
BDirect soldering
CSurface mount
DVirtual lead mounting

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

SelectAnswer
AA heavy metal
BAn ordinary metal
CA liquid semiconductor
DA crystalline semiconductor

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
BIt produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
CIt produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
DIt produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B17

Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?

SelectAnswer
ABecause they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
BBecause they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
CBecause they invert the sidebands causing distortion
DBecause they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal

32. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

SelectAnswer
AThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals
BThe amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
CThe gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
DThe DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

33. - E7D14

What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?

SelectAnswer
ATo boost the amount of output current
BTo improve output voltage regulation
CTo balance the low-voltage filament windings
DTo cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy driving a product detector with a DSB signal
BBy using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
CBy using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
DBy using a balanced modulator followed by a filter

35. - E7F03

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

SelectAnswer
AAn adaptive filter
BAn elliptical filter
CA Hilbert-transform filter
DA notch filter

36. - E7G07

What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A94
B0.21
C24
D47

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

SelectAnswer
AA direct digital synthesizer
BA diode-switching matrix synthesizer
CA hybrid synthesizer
DA phase locked loop synthesizer

38. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?

SelectAnswer
AA sine wave
BA cosine wave
CA sawtooth wave
DA square wave

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A60
B0.167
C1.67
D0.6

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

SelectAnswer
A5.76 kHz
B4.8 kHz
C9.6 kHz
D15.36 kHz

41. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency hopping
BPhase compandored spread spectrum
CDirect sequence
DBinary phase-shift keying

42. - E9A02

What antenna has no gain in any direction?

SelectAnswer
AQuarter-wave vertical
BYagi
CIsotropic antenna
DHalf-wave dipole

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SelectAnswer
APolar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
BSWR vs frequency charts
CAll of these choices are correct
DAntenna gain

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
BA multi-band trap antenna
CA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
DA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

45. - E9D11

Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

SelectAnswer
AA cable with six or seven 18 gauge conductors in parallel
BA single 12 gauge or 10 gauge stainless steel wire
CA wide flat copper strap
DA resistive wire, such as spark plug wire

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe gamma match
BThe epsilon match
CThe delta match
DThe stub match

47. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A50 meters
B10 meters
C24 meters
D6.9 meters

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

SelectAnswer
AElevation angle radiation pattern chart
BSmith chart
CAzimuth angle radiation pattern chart
DFree space radiation directivity chart

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AA very sharp peak
BHigh-radiation angle
CA very sharp single null
DBroad band response

50. - E0A07

How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

SelectAnswer
AOnly with a carbon monoxide detector
BAny ordinary smoke detector can be used
CBy the odor
DBy the yellowish appearance of the gas

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-3