US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A12

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
B	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz
C	No, one of the sidebands of the CW signal will be out of the band
D	Yes, the DX station initiated the contact

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

Select	Answer
A	At least 43 dB below
B	At least 73 dB below
C	At least 63 dB below
D	At least 53 dB below

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
B	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
C	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
D	An indication of increased antenna reflected power

4. - E1D04

What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere
B	Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
C	An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
D	An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space

5. - E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
B	Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
C	Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
D	Immediately terminate the candidate's examination

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
D	When transmitting international third-party communications

7. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Select	Answer
A	Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
B	The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
C	The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
D	The location of the ground control station

8. - E2B02

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

Select	Answer
A	525
B	60
C	30
D	1080

9. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

Select	Answer
A	Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
B	Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
C	Send your full call sign and grid square
D	Send your full call sign once or twice

10. - E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Digipeating
B	Multi-satellite relaying
C	Store-and-forward
D	Node hopping

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR
B	RTTY
C	AMTOR
D	Hellschreiber

12. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
B	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
C	A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
D	A fluttery irregular fading

13. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
B	Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
C	Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
D	Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator

14. - E3C15

What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?

Select	Answer
A	A solar flare has occurred
B	A meteor ping
C	Increased transequatorial propagation likely
D	Long-path propagation is occurring

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Match the antenna to the load
B	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
C	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
B	Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
C	Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
D	Loosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The minimum discernible signal
B	The meter display sensitivity
C	The maximum detectable spectrum
D	The multiplex distortion stability

18. - E4D14

Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
B	Increase the receiver front end gain
C	Raise the receiver IF frequency
D	Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Broadband white noise
C	Ignition noise
D	Power line noise

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
B	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
D	Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B02

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

Select	Answer
A	An exponential discharge rate of one
B	One discharge period
C	A discharge factor of one
D	One time constant

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 8
B	Point 3
C	Point 7
D	Point 1

23. - E5D18

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

Select	Answer
A	704 W
B	355 W
C	1.42 mW
D	252 W

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Common Mode Oscillating System
B	Common Mode Organic Silicon
C	Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
D	Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Junction
B	Tunnel
C	Point contact
D	Zener

26. - E6C14

What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Many similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types
B	A PGA contains its own internal power supply
C	Complex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit
D	All of these choices are correct

27. - E6D14

Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Brass
B	Powdered-iron
C	Ceramic
D	Ferrite

28. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon
B	Silicon dioxide
C	Silicon nitride
D	Gallium nitride

29. - E6F13

What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?

Select	Answer
A	A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
B	A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
C	A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied
D	A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency

30. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	2
C	1
D	4

31. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Low bandwidth
B	High power gain
C	High filament voltage
D	Low input impedance

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a notch filter
B	It is a band-pass filter
C	It is a low-pass filter
D	It is a high-pass filter

33. - E7D03

What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	An SCR
B	A varactor diode
C	A Zener diode
D	A tunnel diode

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
B	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
C	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
D	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

35. - E7F12

What digital process is applied to I and Q signals in order to recover the baseband modulation information?

Select	Answer
A	Signal conditioning
B	Fast Fourier Transform
C	Quadrature mixing
D	Decimation

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Very low
C	1000 ohms
D	100 ohms

37. - E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Select	Answer
A	Broadband noise
B	Digital conversion noise
C	Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
D	Nyquist limit noise

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
B	By using a grid dip meter
C	By using an absorption wave meter
D	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	1.67
B	0.167
C	60
D	0.6

40. - E8C10

What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits

Select	Answer
A	It has more possible states than simple binary
B	It has more resolution than simple binary
C	It facilitates error detection
D	It increases security

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	Foreign language characters can be sent
B	The signal can overpower interfering signals
C	Faster transmission rate
D	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

42. - E9A07

What is meant by antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses
B	The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
C	The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
D	The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction

43. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	Radiation resistance
B	Azimuth
C	Polarization
D	Elevation

44. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
C	A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	More common-mode current is present on the feed line
B	SWR bandwidth increases
C	Gain is reduced
D	SWR bandwidth decreases

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
B	An SWR less than 1:1
C	A dielectric constant greater than 1
D	An SWR greater than 1:1

47. - E9F14

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the output impedance of the generator
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Very high impedance
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna-length circles
B	Coaxial-length circles
C	Standing wave ratio circles
D	Radiation-pattern circles

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
B	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
C	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
D	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Only commercial transmitters
B	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
C	Only the most powerful transmitter
D	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent

Figure E5-2

Figure E9-2