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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

SelectAnswer
AThe amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
BThe amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
CIts operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
DThe amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 43 dB below
BAt least 53 dB below
CAt least 73 dB below
DAt least 63 dB below

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

SelectAnswer
AUnder automatic control there is no control operator
BUnder automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
CUnder local control there is no control operator
DUnder local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

4. - E1D01

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

SelectAnswer
ATwo-way single channel transmissions of data
BOne-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
CTwo-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
DOne-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

SelectAnswer
AThe VEC coordinating the session
BEach administering VE
CThe FCC
DThe VE session manager

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

SelectAnswer
AWhen transmitting international third-party communications
BWhen neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
CWhen the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
DWhen the total money involved does not exceed $25

7. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

SelectAnswer
AThe 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
BThe 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
CFM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
DWhich sideband to use

8. - E2B19

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

SelectAnswer
AThey are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
BThey are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
CThey are not permitted above 54 MHz
DNone; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

SelectAnswer
ATo improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
BAll of these choices are correct
CBecause the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
DTo separate the calling stations from the DX station

10. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

SelectAnswer
AStoring and forwarding digital messages
BHigh speed CW identification to avoid fading
CTime synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
DJudging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon

11. - E2E07

What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

SelectAnswer
A31 Hz
B2.16 kHz
C550 Hz
D316 Hz

12. - E3A15

What is an electromagnetic wave?

SelectAnswer
AA wave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
BA wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
CA wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles to each other
DA wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

13. - E3B09

At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

SelectAnswer
AAround the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
BAround the solstices, especially the summer solstice
CAround the solstices, especially the winter solstice
DAround the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox

14. - E3C15

What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?

SelectAnswer
ALong-path propagation is occurring
BIncreased transequatorial propagation likely
CA meteor ping
DA solar flare has occurred

15. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

SelectAnswer
ARF amplitude and frequency
BSWR and frequency
CSWR and time
DRF amplitude and time

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

SelectAnswer
A14.652 Hz
B1.4652 Hz
C0.1 MHz
D1.4652 kHz

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

SelectAnswer
AThe maximum detectable spectrum
BThe multiplex distortion stability
CThe meter display sensitivity
DThe minimum discernible signal

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

SelectAnswer
ASquelch gain rollback
BCross-modulation interference
CDesensitization
DQuieting

19. - E4E01

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

SelectAnswer
AHeterodyne interference
BIgnition noise
CAll of these choices are correct
DBroadband white noise

20. - E5A15

Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?

SelectAnswer
ALower losses
BHigher self-resonant frequency
CLower reactance
DLower self-resonant frequency

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of magnetic field to electric field
BA measure of the efficiency of a transformer
CThe magnetic impedance of a circuit
DThe inverse of reactance

22. - E5C10

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?

SelectAnswer
AReactive component
BThe sum of the reactive and resistive components
CThe difference between the resistive and reactive components
DResistive component

23. - E5D07

What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio of the current to the resistance
BThe resistance divided by the current
CThe amount of current flowing through the conductor
DThe diameter of the conductor

24. - E6A05

What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

SelectAnswer
AThe change of base current with respect to collector current
BThe change of collector current with respect to base current
CThe change of collector current with respect to gate current
DThe change of collector current with respect to emitter current

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

SelectAnswer
AMetal-semiconductor junction
BThermionic emission diode
CCMOS-field effect
DElectrolytic rectifier

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

SelectAnswer
ALow power consumption
BHigh speed operation
CMore efficient arithmetic operations
DAbility to connect many device outputs to a common bus

27. - E6D11

How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

SelectAnswer
A229 turns
B4 turns
C2 turns
D43 turns

28. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

SelectAnswer
ANearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
BThe ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
CPlate current that is controlled by a control grid
DControlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

SelectAnswer
ASilicon
BCopper oxide
CCadmium Sulfide
DSelenium

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
BIt only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
CIt produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
DIt produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B17

Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?

SelectAnswer
ABecause they invert the sidebands causing distortion
BBecause they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
CBecause they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
DBecause they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals

32. - E7C12

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

SelectAnswer
AA Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
BA Phase Inverter Load network
CA network with only three discrete parts
DA matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AIt eliminates the need for a pass transistor
BThe control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
CThe conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
DIt has a ramp voltage as its output

34. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
AA beat frequency is generated
BMixer blanking occurs
CAutomatic limiting occurs
DSpurious mixer products are generated

35. - E7F03

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

SelectAnswer
AA Hilbert-transform filter
BAn adaptive filter
CA notch filter
DAn elliptical filter

36. - E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

SelectAnswer
AIt decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
BIt does not vary with frequency
CIt increases linearly with increasing frequency
DIt decreases linearly with increasing frequency

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

SelectAnswer
AA direct digital synthesizer
BA diode-switching matrix synthesizer
CA hybrid synthesizer
DA phase locked loop synthesizer

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

SelectAnswer
ABy using a grid dip meter
BBy using an absorption wave meter
CBy measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
DBy measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

SelectAnswer
A0.214
B0.47
C47
D2.14

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

SelectAnswer
AExcess 3 code
BGray code
CExtended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
DBinary Coded Decimal Code

41. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
ABinary phase-shift keying
BDirect sequence
CPhase compandored spread spectrum
DFrequency hopping

42. - E9A10

Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIsolate the coax shield from ground
BShorten the radiating element
CInstall a good radial system
DReduce the diameter of the radiating element

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

SelectAnswer
A50 degrees
B75 degrees
C30 degrees
D25 degrees

44. - E9C03

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?

SelectAnswer
AA Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
BA Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
COmni-directional
DCardioid

45. - E9D04

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

SelectAnswer
ATo minimize losses
BTo swamp out harmonics
CTo maximize losses
DTo minimize the Q

46. - E9E06

What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system of a 3-element Yagi?

SelectAnswer
AA shunt inductor
BPi-L-network
CA series capacitor
DPi-network

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AVery low impedance
BVery high impedance
CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
DThe same as the input impedance to the generator

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AResistance lines and reactance chords
BResistance circles and reactance arcs
CVoltage circles and current arcs
DVoltage lines and current chords

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

SelectAnswer
AIt compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
BIt narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
CIt reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
DIt prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

SelectAnswer
ABlood clotting from the intense magnetic field
BHearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
CLocalized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
DIngestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

Figure E9-1