US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - E1A01

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz below the upper band edge
B	The exact upper band edge
C	1 kHz below the upper band edge
D	300 Hz below the upper band edge

2. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
B	A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
C	An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
D	Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station

3. - E1C01

What is a remotely controlled station?

Select	Answer
A	A station operating under automatic control
B	A station controlled indirectly through a control link
C	A station operated away from its regular home location
D	A station controlled by someone other than the licensee

4. - E1D01

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Select	Answer
A	Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
B	One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
C	One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
D	Two-way single channel transmissions of data

5. - E1E12

What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Select	Answer
A	Destroy the application form
B	Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
C	Return the application document to the examinee
D	Maintain the application form with the VEC's records

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
B	It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
C	It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
D	It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

7. - E2A10

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Select	Answer
A	Because of ionospheric absorption
B	Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
C	Because the satellite is spinning
D	Because of the Doppler Effect

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	14.230 MHz
B	29.6 MHz
C	52.525 MHz
D	1255 MHz

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
B	To relay calls to and from a DX station
C	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
D	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

10. - E2D13

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-tone AFSK
B	PSK
C	RTTY
D	IEEE 802.11

11. - E2E05

Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK
B	RTTY
C	Winlink
D	PSK31

12. - E3A16

Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Select	Answer
A	Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
B	The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
C	Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
D	The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index

13. - E3B08

What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Select	Answer
A	Gray-line
B	Transequatorial
C	Long-path
D	Sporadic-E

14. - E3C09

How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

Select	Answer
A	10 percent greater
B	Four times as great
C	Twice as great
D	50 percent greater

15. - E4A04

What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the interface of the interface circuit
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Amount of memory on the soundcard
D	Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Decade divider accuracy
B	Temperature coefficient of the logic
C	Input attenuator accuracy
D	Time base accuracy

17. - E4C12

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired signals may be heard
B	Filter ringing
C	Output-offset overshoot
D	Thermal-noise distortion

18. - E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
B	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
C	The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
D	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression

19. - E4E05

How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

Select	Answer
A	By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
B	By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
C	By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
D	By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

20. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	3.56 MHz
B	44.72 MHz
C	22.36 MHz
D	1.78 MHz

21. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
B	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
C	Voltage and current are in phase
D	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

Select	Answer
A	The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
B	The magnitude and phase of the point
C	The sine and cosine values
D	The tangent and cotangent values

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	70.7 Watts
B	141.4 Watts
C	100 Watts
D	200 Watts

24. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

Select	Answer
A	Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
B	Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
C	Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
D	Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Zener
B	Tunnel
C	Junction
D	Point contact

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	1
C	4
D	2

27. - E6D17

Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	RF susceptance would increase
B	Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
C	Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
D	Harmonics and distortion could result

28. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

Select	Answer
A	DIP
B	SOT
C	Ball grid array
D	PLCC

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	An ordinary metal
B	A crystalline semiconductor
C	A liquid semiconductor
D	A heavy metal

30. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

Select	Answer
A	It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
B	It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
C	It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
D	It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

31. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal inversion
B	Increased overall intelligibility
C	Reduced intermodulation products
D	Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth

32. - E7C01

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output
B	Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
C	An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
D	Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground

33. - E7D16

When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
C	To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
D	To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor

34. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
B	Two and four times the original frequency
C	The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
D	1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	An adaptive filter
B	A phase-inverting filter
C	A crystal-lattice filter
D	A Hilbert-transform filter

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
B	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
C	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
D	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a tapped coil
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through a quartz crystal
D	Through link coupling

38. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave
B	A cosine wave
C	A sine wave
D	A sawtooth wave

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	2.14
B	47
C	0.47
D	0.214

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
B	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
C	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
D	Special binary codes provide automatic correction

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
B	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
C	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
D	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

42. - E9A18

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

Select	Answer
A	Power factor
B	Apparent power
C	Half-power bandwidth
D	Effective radiated power

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
B	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
C	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
D	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection

44. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

Select	Answer
A	The low-angle radiation decreases
B	The high-angle radiation increases
C	Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
D	The low-angle radiation increases

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
B	It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
C	It might radiate harmonics
D	It must be neutralized

46. - E9E09

Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gamma match
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Double-bazooka match
D	Hairpin match

47. - E9F15

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Very high impedance
C	Very low impedance
D	The same as the output impedance of the generator

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Polar axis
B	Reactance axis
C	Prime axis
D	Impedance axis

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
B	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
C	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
D	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
B	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
C	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
D	Signal Amplification Rating

Figure E6-5

Figure E9-3