US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
B	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
B	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
D	Specific local government channels

3. - E1C12

What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
C	Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
D	Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service

4. - E1D07

Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
B	All HF bands
C	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
D	Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
B	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team
C	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed
D	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations

6. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
C	The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
D	A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

7. - E2A09

What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

Select	Answer
A	Which sideband to use
B	The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
C	The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
D	FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems

8. - E2B02

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

Select	Answer
A	1080
B	30
C	60
D	525

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
B	To separate the calling stations from the DX station
C	To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - E2D09

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	300 baud packet
C	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
D	PSK31

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Select	Answer
A	Selective fading has occurred
B	One of the signal filters is saturated
C	The mark and space signal have been inverted
D	The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the Moon is at apogee
B	When the MUF is above 30 MHz
C	When the Moon is at perigee
D	When the Moon is full

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Morning
B	Late at night
C	Afternoon or early evening
D	Noon

14. - E3C01

What does the term ray tracing describe in regard to radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Evaluating high voltage sources for X-Rays
B	Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
C	Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
D	The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Bit error rate tester
B	Modulation monitor
C	Logic analyzer
D	Network analyzer

16. - E4B03

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	165.2 Hz
B	14.652 kHz
C	146.52 Hz
D	1.4652 MHz

17. - E4C15

What is usually the primary source of noise that is heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver front-end noise
B	Induction motor noise
C	Detector noise
D	Atmospheric noise

18. - E4D14

Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Raise the receiver IF frequency
B	Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
C	Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
D	Increase the receiver front end gain

19. - E4E08

What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B	Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
C	An electrical-sparking signal
D	A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	7.12 MHz
B	7.12 kHz
C	23.5 kHz
D	23.5 MHz

21. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and current are in phase
B	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
D	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

22. - E5C09

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Select	Answer
A	Resistive component
B	Reactive component
C	The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D	The difference between the resistive and reactive components

23. - E5D10

How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
B	By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
C	By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
D	By dividing the reactive power by the power factor

24. - E6A17

What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Gate, drain, source
B	Emitter, base, collector
C	Emitter, base 1, base 2
D	Gate 1, gate 2, drain

25. - E6B13

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive bias
B	Reverse bias
C	Zero bias
D	Forward bias

26. - E6C11

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	5
C	6
D	2

27. - E6D16

What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to absorb transient voltage spikes?

Select	Answer
A	Clipper capacitor
B	Feedback capacitor
C	Trimmer capacitor
D	Snubber capacitor

28. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
B	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
C	Package mounts in a direct inverted position
D	Low leakage doubly insulated package

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It stays the same
C	It decreases
D	It becomes unstable

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

31. - E7B01

For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 180 degrees
B	More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
C	Exactly 180 degrees
D	The entire cycle

32. - E7C14

Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	Video
B	Digital
C	Single-Sideband voice
D	Meteor scatter

33. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

Select	Answer
A	A shunt regulator
B	A shunt current source
C	A series regulator
D	A constant current source

34. - E7E11

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

Select	Answer
A	Product detector
B	Phase comparator
C	Discriminator
D	Phase detector

35. - E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

Select	Answer
A	Missing codes and jitter
B	Sample clock phase noise
C	Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
D	Data storage transfer rate

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As an audio filter in a receiver
B	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
C	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
D	For smoothing power supply output

37. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a tapped coil
B	Through link coupling
C	Through a neutralizing capacitor
D	Through a capacitive divider

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Select	Answer
A	Human speech
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Video signals
D	Data

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely low-power contacts
B	EME
C	High speed digital modes
D	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	Baud is twice the symbol rate
B	They are the same
C	Baud is only used for RTTY
D	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes

41. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	Limits data speed
B	The generation of RF harmonics
C	More difficult to copy
D	The generation of key clicks

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
B	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
B	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
C	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
D	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance

44. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	72 ohms

45. - E9D06

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes flat
B	It is decreased
C	No change occurs
D	It is increased

46. - E9E01

What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma matching system
B	The omega matching system
C	The stub matching system
D	The delta matching system

47. - E9F03

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Select	Answer
A	Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
B	The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
C	Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
D	The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

48. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage axis
B	The reactance axis
C	The resistance axis
D	The current axis

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
B	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
C	It should be one or more wavelengths long
D	It should be configured as a four-sided loop

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
B	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
C	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
D	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits

Figure E6-5

Figure E9-3