US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A03

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
B	Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
C	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
D	No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
C	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
D	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

3. - E1C10

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
B	Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C	Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
D	Only beacon, repeater or space stations

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
C	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The VEC coordinating the session
C	The VE session manager
D	Each administering VE

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
B	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
C	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
D	All privileges of the Extra Class license

7. - E2A04

What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
B	The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
C	The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
D	The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	52.525 MHz
B	14.230 MHz
C	29.6 MHz
D	1255 MHz

9. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

Select	Answer
A	The most common set of contest rules
B	A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
C	A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
D	The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

10. - E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR
B	802.11
C	AX.25
D	AMTOR

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	It depends on the lunar phase
B	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
C	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
D	Stations take turns on alternate days

12. - E3A13

Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	CW
C	RTTY
D	FM

13. - E3B14

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They become phase-locked
B	Their polarization is randomly modified
C	They are bent toward the magnetic poles
D	They become elliptically polarized

14. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

Select	Answer
A	Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
B	An increase in the critical frequency
C	Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
D	Higher levels of solar UV radiation

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Match the antenna to the load
B	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
C	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B08

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Low impedance input
B	High impedance input
C	High reluctance input
D	Low reluctance input

17. - E4C02

Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

Select	Answer
A	A properly adjusted product detector
B	A front-end filter or pre-selector
C	A narrow IF filter
D	A notch filter

18. - E4D03

How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

Select	Answer
A	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
B	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
C	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
D	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

19. - E4E14

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

Select	Answer
A	A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
B	The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
C	A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
D	A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

20. - E5A12

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

Select	Answer
A	15.7 kHz
B	436.6 kHz
C	31.4 kHz
D	218.3 kHz

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The unit used for Q factor
B	The inverse of impedance
C	The turns ratio of a transformer
D	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor

22. - E5C01

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

Select	Answer
A	+jX
B	X
C	-jX
D	Omega

23. - E5D08

What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Select	Answer
A	Thermodynamic energy
B	Potential energy
C	Kinetic energy
D	Electromechanical energy

24. - E6A17

What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Gate, drain, source
B	Emitter, base, collector
C	Emitter, base 1, base 2
D	Gate 1, gate 2, drain

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	Thermionic emission diode
B	Metal-semiconductor junction
C	Electrolytic rectifier
D	CMOS-field effect

26. - E6C10

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	2
C	3
D	4

27. - E6D16

What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to absorb transient voltage spikes?

Select	Answer
A	Clipper capacitor
B	Trimmer capacitor
C	Feedback capacitor
D	Snubber capacitor

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
B	MMICs require no operating bias
C	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Copper oxide
B	Silicon
C	Cadmium Sulfide
D	Selenium

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"

31. - E7B06

Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even order harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Push-push
C	Push-pull
D	Class C

32. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

Select	Answer
A	A Butterworth filter
B	A Chebyshev filter
C	A passive op-amp filter
D	An active LC filter

33. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
B	To allow for remote control of the power supply
C	To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
D	To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
B	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
C	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
D	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

35. - E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

Select	Answer
A	Provide access for debugging software
B	To reduce excess signal pressure levels
C	Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
D	Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
B	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
C	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
D	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a tapped coil
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through link coupling
D	Through a quartz crystal

38. - E8A13

Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Sequential sampling
B	Harmonic regeneration
C	Phase reversal
D	Level shifting

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.167
B	60
C	0.6
D	1.67

40. - E8C04

What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Reed-Solomon character encoding
B	Zero-sum character encoding
C	Use of sinusoidal data pulses
D	Use of trapezoidal data pulses

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
B	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
C	Signal to noise ratio
D	Baud rate

42. - E9A18

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

Select	Answer
A	Power factor
B	Apparent power
C	Effective radiated power
D	Half-power bandwidth

43. - E9B04

What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Select	Answer
A	The gain may change depending on frequency
B	Element spacing limits could be exceeded
C	Feed point impedance may become negative
D	The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse

44. - E9C13

What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

Select	Answer
A	It causes increased SWR
B	It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
C	It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
D	It reduces low-angle radiation

45. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the losses
B	To cancel capacitive reactance
C	To increase the SWR bandwidth
D	To lower the Q

46. - E9E12

What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
B	It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
C	It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
D	It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance to the generator
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Very low impedance
D	Very high impedance

48. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Trigonometric functions
B	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
C	Beam headings and radiation patterns
D	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
B	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
C	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
D	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals

50. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

Select	Answer
A	Polytetrafluroethylene
B	Polyethylene
C	Polychlorinated Biphenyls
D	Polymorphic silicon

Figure E6-5