US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A01

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	The exact upper band edge
B	300 Hz below the upper band edge
C	1 kHz below the upper band edge
D	3 kHz below the upper band edge

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
B	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
C	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
B	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
C	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
D	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC

4. - E1D04

What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
B	An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
C	An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
D	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere

5. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum passing score of 80%
B	Minimum passing score of 74%
C	Minimum passing score of 70%
D	Minimum passing score of 77%

6. - E1F10

What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

Select	Answer
A	1 W
B	1.5 W
C	1.5 kW
D	10 W

7. - E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

Select	Answer
A	LEO
B	Geostationary
C	HEO
D	Geomagnetic

8. - E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

Select	Answer
A	By scanning two fields simultaneously
B	By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
C	By scanning each field from bottom to top
D	By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

9. - E2C02

Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting in regards to HF contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
B	A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
C	The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
D	An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

10. - E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

Select	Answer
A	APRS
B	Hellschreiber
C	FSK441
D	WSPR

11. - E2E05

Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Select	Answer
A	RTTY
B	Winlink
C	PSK31
D	MFSK

12. - E3A17

What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Select	Answer
A	Waves with a rotating electric field
B	Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
C	Waves produced by a loop antenna
D	Waves that circle the Earth

13. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	10 meters
B	80 meters
C	6 meters
D	20 meters

14. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
B	By approximately four times the distance
C	By approximately 15 percent of the distance
D	By approximately twice the distance

15. - E4A05

What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Storage of traces for future reference
C	Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout
D	Manipulation of time base after trace capture

16. - E4B08

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Low reluctance input
B	High impedance input
C	High reluctance input
D	Low impedance input

17. - E4C15

What is usually the primary source of noise that is heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver front-end noise
B	Induction motor noise
C	Atmospheric noise
D	Detector noise

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
B	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
C	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
D	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

19. - E4E07

How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

Select	Answer
A	By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
B	By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
C	By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
D	By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope

20. - E5A01

What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance
B	Resistance
C	Conductance
D	Capacitance

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The sign is reversed
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
D	It is unchanged

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 8
B	Point 1
C	Point 7
D	Point 3

23. - E5D07

What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?

Select	Answer
A	The resistance divided by the current
B	The amount of current flowing through the conductor
C	The diameter of the conductor
D	The ratio of the current to the resistance

24. - E6A12

Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
B	To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
C	To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
D	To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	6
C	7
D	1

26. - E6C12

What is BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
B	A FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
C	A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
D	A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package

27. - E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
B	Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
C	Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
D	Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
B	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
C	MMICs require no operating bias
D	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	An ordinary metal
B	A liquid semiconductor
C	A heavy metal
D	A crystalline semiconductor

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
C	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Tune the stage for maximum SWR
B	Tune both the input and output for maximum power
C	Use a phase inverter in the output filter
D	Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage

32. - E7C03

What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a regular Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Greater harmonic suppression
B	Greater transformation range
C	Lower losses
D	Higher efficiency

33. - E7D04

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

Select	Answer
A	A shunt regulator
B	A shunt current source
C	A series regulator
D	A series current source

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	For higher efficiency
B	To reduce impulse noise reception
C	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
D	To remove third-order distortion products

35. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

Select	Answer
A	At half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
B	At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
C	At twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
D	At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	1000 ohms
B	Very low
C	100 ohms
D	Very high

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
B	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
C	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
D	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator

38. - E8A13

Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Level shifting
B	Sequential sampling
C	Phase reversal
D	Harmonic regeneration

39. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

Select	Answer
A	It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
B	It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
C	It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
D	It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

40. - E8C03

When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the particular mode
B	It improves carrier suppression
C	It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous detector
D	All of these choices are correct

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	The signal can overpower interfering signals
B	Faster transmission rate
C	Foreign language characters can be sent
D	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
D	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B13

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Select	Answer
A	Next Element Comparison
B	Numerical Electromagnetic Code
C	National Electrical Code
D	Numeric Electrical Computation

44. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

Select	Answer
A	The low-angle radiation increases
B	Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
C	The high-angle radiation increases
D	The low-angle radiation decreases

45. - E9D01

How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases by 6 dB
B	Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C	Gain does not change
D	Gain increases by 3 dB

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The delta match
B	The stub match
C	The omega match
D	The gamma match

47. - E9F14

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	Very high impedance
C	Very low impedance
D	The same as the output impedance of the generator

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Smith chart
B	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
C	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
D	Free space radiation directivity chart

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
B	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
C	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
D	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

50. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Select	Answer
A	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
B	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
C	Microwaves are ionizing radiation
D	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-3