US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
C	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
D	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society

3. - E1C10

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only beacon, repeater or space stations
B	Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C	Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
D	Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

4. - E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station designated by NASA
B	Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
B	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
C	A sentence of up to one year in prison
D	All of these choices are correct

6. - E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
B	To provide for experimental amateur communications
C	To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
D	To provide additional spectrum for personal use

7. - E2A08

Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
B	To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
C	To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
D	To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	52.525 MHz
B	14.230 MHz
C	29.6 MHz
D	1255 MHz

9. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

Select	Answer
A	Send your full call sign once or twice
B	Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
C	Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
D	Send your full call sign and grid square

10. - E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Select	Answer
A	Disconnect
B	Connect
C	Acknowledgement
D	Unnumbered Information

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
B	Stations take turns on alternate days
C	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
D	It depends on the lunar phase

12. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

Select	Answer
A	10 miles to 50 miles
B	2500 miles
C	100 miles to 300 miles
D	1200 miles

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters to 10 meters
B	30 meters to 10 meters
C	6 meters to 2 meters
D	160 meters to 40 meters

14. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately twice the distance
B	By approximately four times the distance
C	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
D	By approximately 15 percent of the distance

15. - E4A05

What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout
C	Storage of traces for future reference
D	Manipulation of time base after trace capture

16. - E4B10

Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
B	Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
C	Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
D	Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer

17. - E4C02

Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

Select	Answer
A	A notch filter
B	A front-end filter or pre-selector
C	A properly adjusted product detector
D	A narrow IF filter

18. - E4D13

Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Audio bias adjusted too high
B	Squelch gain misadjusted
C	Strong adjacent channel signals
D	Audio gain adjusted too low

19. - E4E16

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

Select	Answer
A	Return current
B	Differential-mode current
C	Reactive current only
D	Common-mode current

20. - E5A01

What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Resistance
C	Capacitance
D	Resonance

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of reactance
B	The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
C	A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
D	The magnetic impedance of a circuit

22. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
B	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
C	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
D	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance

23. - E5D08

What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Select	Answer
A	Electromechanical energy
B	Kinetic energy
C	Thermodynamic energy
D	Potential energy

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
B	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
C	Any FET without a channel
D	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Junction
B	Tunnel
C	Point contact
D	Zener

26. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

Select	Answer
A	The feedback loop becomes unstable
B	The IC input can be damaged
C	The comparator changes its output state
D	The comparator enters latch-up

27. - E6D14

Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Ceramic
B	Powdered-iron
C	Brass
D	Ferrite

28. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
B	Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
C	The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
D	Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

29. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

Select	Answer
A	It increases
B	It stays the same
C	It becomes unstable
D	It decreases

30. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

Select	Answer
A	A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
B	A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
C	A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
D	A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp

31. - E7B17

Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
B	Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
C	Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
D	Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal

32. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

Select	Answer
A	The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
B	The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
C	The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
D	The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter

33. - E7D02

What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
B	The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
C	It gives a ramp voltage at its output
D	The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove third-order distortion products
B	To reduce impulse noise reception
C	For higher efficiency
D	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	In-phase and Quadrature
B	Inactive and Quiescent
C	Instantaneous and Quenched
D	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable

36. - E7G12

What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
B	A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
C	An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
D	A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance

37. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce, Fenner and Beane
B	Taft, Hartley and Pierce
C	Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
D	Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

38. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave
B	A square wave
C	A cosine wave
D	A sawtooth wave

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely low-power contacts
B	EME
C	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
D	High speed digital modes

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	They are the same
B	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
C	Baud is only used for RTTY
D	Baud is twice the symbol rate

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
B	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
C	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
D	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code

42. - E9A05

What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
B	Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
C	Radiation resistance plus space impedance
D	Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

Select	Answer
A	30 degrees
B	75 degrees
C	50 degrees
D	25 degrees

44. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	300 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	72 ohms

45. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
B	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
C	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
D	A 50 ohm resistor connected to ground

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The omega match
B	The gamma match
C	The delta match
D	The stub match

47. - E9F05

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 meters
B	20 meters
C	3.5 meters
D	2.3 meters

48. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and impedance
B	Resistance and reactance
C	Reactance and voltage
D	Resistance and voltage

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
B	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
C	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
D	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
B	Only the most powerful transmitter
C	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent
D	Only commercial transmitters

Figure E9-1