US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - E1A01

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz below the upper band edge
B	300 Hz below the upper band edge
C	The exact upper band edge
D	3 kHz below the upper band edge

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
B	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
C	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
D	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society

3. - E1C07

What is meant by local control?

Select	Answer
A	Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
B	Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
C	Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
D	Automatically manipulating local station controls

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

Select	Answer
A	70 cm and 33 cm
B	70 cm and 13 cm
C	33 cm and 13 cm
D	70 cm only

5. - E1E01

What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	2
C	5
D	3

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
B	When transmitting international third-party communications
C	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
D	When the total money involved does not exceed $25

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
B	144 MHz - 146 MHz
C	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
D	435 MHz - 438 MHz

8. - E2B15

What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Select	Answer
A	Specific tone amplitudes
B	Specific tone frequencies
C	Elapsed time
D	A two-tone signal

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	The ARRL section of the remote station
B	No additional indicator is required
C	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
D	/R# where # is the district of the remote station

10. - E2D13

What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

Select	Answer
A	IEEE 802.11
B	RTTY
C	Multi-tone AFSK
D	PSK

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	It depends on the lunar phase
B	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
C	Stations take turns on alternate days
D	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals

12. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The jet stream
B	Dust devil
C	Temperature inversion
D	Wind shear

13. - E3B13

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

Select	Answer
A	The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
B	Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
C	Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
D	The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation

14. - E3C15

What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?

Select	Answer
A	Increased transequatorial propagation likely
B	A solar flare has occurred
C	Long-path propagation is occurring
D	A meteor ping

15. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing in a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?

Select	Answer
A	All signals will have a DC offset
B	Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
C	False triggering occurs
D	False signals are displayed

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Decade divider accuracy
B	Time base accuracy
C	Input attenuator accuracy
D	Temperature coefficient of the logic

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The meter display sensitivity
B	The multiplex distortion stability
C	The minimum discernible signal
D	The maximum detectable spectrum

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
B	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
C	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
D	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

19. - E4E01

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Broadband white noise
B	Ignition noise
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Heterodyne interference

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Select	Answer
A	R/L
B	L/R
C	Minimum
D	Maximum

21. - E5B02

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

Select	Answer
A	An exponential discharge rate of one
B	A discharge factor of one
C	One discharge period
D	One time constant

22. - E5C07

What is a vector?

Select	Answer
A	A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component
B	The value of a quantity that changes over time
C	The inverse of the sine function
D	The inverse of the tangent function

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	100 Watts
B	200 Watts
C	141.4 Watts
D	70.7 Watts

24. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Select	Answer
A	N-type impurity
B	Donor impurity
C	Acceptor impurity
D	Insulator impurity

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a high voltage rectifier
B	As an RF switch
C	As a constant voltage source
D	As a constant current source

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	More efficient arithmetic operations
B	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
C	Low power consumption
D	High speed operation

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
B	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
C	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
D	The inductor windings are over coupled

28. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Package mounts in a direct inverted position
B	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
C	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
D	Low leakage doubly insulated package

29. - E6F08

Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120VAC?

Select	Answer
A	Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
B	Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
C	Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
D	Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Positive Logic
B	Reverse Logic
C	Negative logic
D	Assertive Logic

31. - E7B12

What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Select	Answer
A	Common emitter
B	Common collector
C	Common base
D	Emitter follower

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a notch filter
B	It is a high-pass filter
C	It is a low-pass filter
D	It is a band-pass filter

33. - E7D04

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

Select	Answer
A	A shunt regulator
B	A series current source
C	A shunt current source
D	A series regulator

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
B	To remove third-order distortion products
C	For higher efficiency
D	To reduce impulse noise reception

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Sample clock phase noise
B	Sample rate
C	Processor latency
D	Sample width in bits

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	An echo caused by a long time delay
B	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
C	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
D	A reduction in high frequency response

37. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

Select	Answer
A	Eliminating noise on the oscillator's power supply
B	Use of NP0 capacitors
C	Using the oscillator only for CW and digital signals
D	Mechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Select	Answer
A	Video signals
B	Data
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Human speech

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
B	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
C	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
D	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 kHz
B	0.3 kHz
C	1.0 kHz
D	0.1 Hz

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal to noise ratio
B	Baud rate
C	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
D	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)

42. - E9A04

Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Sunspot activity and time of day
B	Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
C	The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
D	Transmission-line length

43. - E9B04

What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Select	Answer
A	The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
B	The gain may change depending on frequency
C	Element spacing limits could be exceeded
D	Feed point impedance may become negative

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
B	Omni-directional
C	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The front-to-back ratio decreases
B	The front-to-back ratio increases
C	The SWR is reduced
D	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Reflection coefficient
B	Characteristic impedance
C	Velocity factor
D	Dielectric constant

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	The same as the input impedance to the generator
C	Very high impedance
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage circles and current arcs
B	Resistance lines and reactance chords
C	Voltage lines and current chords
D	Resistance circles and reactance arcs

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	Broad band response
B	A very sharp peak
C	High-radiation angle
D	A very sharp single null

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	Signal Amplification Rating
B	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
C	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
D	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

Figure E7-1