US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
C	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
D	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

2. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

Select	Answer
A	Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
B	A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
C	An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
D	An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification

3. - E1C10

What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
B	Only beacon, repeater or space stations
C	Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
D	Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

Select	Answer
A	70 cm only
B	70 cm and 13 cm
C	33 cm and 13 cm
D	70 cm and 33 cm

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
C	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
D	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license

6. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
B	It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
C	It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
D	It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

7. - E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

Select	Answer
A	Geomagnetic
B	LEO
C	Geostationary
D	HEO

8. - E2B15

What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Select	Answer
A	A two-tone signal
B	Specific tone frequencies
C	Specific tone amplitudes
D	Elapsed time

9. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

Select	Answer
A	Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
B	Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
C	Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
D	Contacts using tactical call signs

10. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441
B	JT65
C	Olivia
D	PACTOR III

11. - E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	300-baud packet
B	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C	PSK31
D	MFSK16

12. - E3A06

Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Rain droplets must be within the E layer
B	The rain must be within radio range of both stations
C	Rain droplets must be electrically charged
D	All of these choices are correct

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around sunset
B	Any time
C	Around sunrise
D	Early evening

14. - E3C12

How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases
B	It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
C	It stays the same
D	It increases

15. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

Select	Answer
A	SWR and time
B	RF amplitude and frequency
C	RF amplitude and time
D	SWR and frequency

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Time base accuracy
B	Input attenuator accuracy
C	Decade divider accuracy
D	Temperature coefficient of the logic

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
B	It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
C	It reduces receiver sensitivity
D	It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range

18. - E4D11

Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
B	Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
C	The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
D	The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band

19. - E4E14

What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

Select	Answer
A	A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
B	A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
C	The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
D	A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
D	Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	It is unchanged
D	The sign is reversed

22. - E5C05

What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Near field diagram
B	Far field diagram
C	Venn diagram
D	Phasor diagram

23. - E5D15

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.866
B	0.5
C	1.0
D	0.707

24. - E6A14

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

Select	Answer
A	An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
B	They are both low impedance
C	They are both high impedance
D	An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance

25. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

Select	Answer
A	As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
B	As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C	As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
D	As balanced mixers in FM generation

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	2
C	3
D	1

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactivity
B	Resistance
C	Permeability
D	Thermal impedance

28. - E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

Select	Answer
A	Ball grid array
B	SOT
C	DIP
D	PLCC

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 V
B	0.5 V
C	12 V
D	1.5 V

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	An OR gate
C	An XOR gate
D	A multiplexer

31. - E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Select	Answer
A	Collector load
B	Voltage regulation
C	Fixed bias
D	Emitter load

32. - E7C03

What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a regular Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Greater transformation range
B	Higher efficiency
C	Lower losses
D	Greater harmonic suppression

33. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

Select	Answer
A	A shunt current source
B	A series regulator
C	A constant current source
D	A shunt regulator

34. - E7E07

What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
B	The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
C	The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
D	The frequency components present in the modulating signal

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	A crystal-lattice filter
B	A Hilbert-transform filter
C	An adaptive filter
D	A phase-inverting filter

36. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Restrict Q but increase gain
B	Increase both gain and Q
C	Restrict gain but increase Q
D	Restrict both gain and Q

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
B	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
C	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
D	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Select	Answer
A	Human speech
B	Data
C	Video signals
D	All of these choices are correct

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.214
B	47
C	0.47
D	2.14

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	Baud is twice the symbol rate
B	Baud is only used for RTTY
C	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
D	They are the same

41. - E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

Select	Answer
A	It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
B	It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
C	It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
D	It includes built in error correction features

42. - E9A07

What is meant by antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses
B	The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
C	The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
D	The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power

43. - E9B02

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

Select	Answer
A	24 dB
B	14 dB
C	18 dB
D	36 dB

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B	A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
C	A dipole configured to provide forward gain
D	A type of ground-plane antenna

45. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
B	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
C	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
D	A 50 ohm resistor connected to ground

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The gamma match
B	The stub match
C	The omega match
D	The delta match

47. - E9F05

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 meters
B	20 meters
C	0.2 meters
D	2.3 meters

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance axis
B	Impedance axis
C	Polar axis
D	Prime axis

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
C	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
D	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Uranium Hexafluoride
B	Beryllium Oxide
C	Mica
D	Zinc oxide

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-2

Figure E9-1

Figure E9-3