US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
C	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
D	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

2. - E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

Select	Answer
A	A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
B	Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
C	An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
D	An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

3. - E1C07

What is meant by local control?

Select	Answer
A	Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
B	Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
C	Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
D	Automatically manipulating local station controls

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

Select	Answer
A	70 cm and 13 cm
B	70 cm and 33 cm
C	70 cm only
D	33 cm and 13 cm

5. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Select	Answer
A	Friends of the VE
B	Employees of the VE
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
B	Communications in a language other than English
C	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
D	Communications that have a religious content

7. - E2A02

What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From south to north
B	From east to west
C	From north to south
D	From west to east

8. - E2B19

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
B	They are not permitted above 54 MHz
C	They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D	None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies

9. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
B	A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem
C	A standard wireless router running custom software
D	A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem

10. - E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	PACTOR
C	AX.25
D	802.11

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Local
B	Remote
C	Automatic
D	ALE can use any type of control

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	28 MHz - 148 MHz
B	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
C	220 MHz - 450 MHz
D	10 MHz - 14 MHz

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Late at night
B	Morning
C	Noon
D	Afternoon or early evening

14. - E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

Select	Answer
A	HF propagation
B	AC current and impedance
C	VHF radio propagation
D	AC voltage and impedance

15. - E4A04

What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the interface of the interface circuit
B	Amount of memory on the soundcard
C	Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B05

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	146.52 Hz
B	146.52 kHz
C	1465.20 Hz
D	10 Hz

17. - E4C17

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's linearity?

Select	Answer
A	Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
B	Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
C	RAM speed used for data storage
D	CPU register width in bits

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
B	A Class C final amplifier
C	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
D	A Class D final amplifier

19. - E4E07

How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

Select	Answer
A	By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
B	By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C	By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
D	By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B	Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
C	Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D	Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
D	The sign is reversed

22. - E5C17

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 1
B	Point 8
C	Point 5
D	Point 3

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	200 Watts
B	141.4 Watts
C	100 Watts
D	70.7 Watts

24. - E6A10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	4
C	6
D	2

25. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	A large region of intrinsic material
B	Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
C	Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
D	Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

Select	Answer
A	To cause the output to change states continually
B	To increase the sensitivity
C	To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
D	To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

27. - E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Select	Answer
A	Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
B	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
C	Increased conductivity in the presence of light
D	Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage

28. - E6E07

Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Microstrip construction
B	Point-to-point construction
C	Ground-plane construction
D	Wave-soldering construction

29. - E6F14

Which of the following is true of LCD displays?

Select	Answer
A	They only display alphanumeric symbols
B	They may be hard view through polarized lenses
C	All of these choices are correct
D	They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions

30. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

Select	Answer
A	A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
B	A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
C	A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
D	A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp

31. - E7B16

What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of spurious signals
B	Creation of parasitic oscillations
C	Low efficiency
D	All of these choices are correct

32. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
B	Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
C	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
D	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

33. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

Select	Answer
A	A series regulator
B	A shunt regulator
C	A shunt current source
D	A constant current source

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove third-order distortion products
B	To reduce impulse noise reception
C	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
D	For higher efficiency

35. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuating the signal
B	Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
C	Removing unnecessary significant digits
D	Converting data to binary code decimal form

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As an audio filter in a receiver
B	For smoothing power supply output
C	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
D	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
B	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
C	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
D	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration

38. - E8A12

What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Select	Answer
A	Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
D	Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error

39. - E8B01

What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM compressibility
B	Modulation index
C	Quieting index
D	Percentage of modulation

40. - E8C04

What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Use of trapezoidal data pulses
B	Use of sinusoidal data pulses
C	Reed-Solomon character encoding
D	Zero-sum character encoding

41. - E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

Select	Answer
A	Ground loops
B	Excessive transmit audio levels
C	Bit errors in the modem
D	Excessive numbers of retries

42. - E9A02

What antenna has no gain in any direction?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic antenna
B	Quarter-wave vertical
C	Half-wave dipole
D	Yagi

43. - E9B08

How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Select	Answer
A	Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
B	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
C	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
D	Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference

44. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An end fed folded dipole antenna
B	A center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in phase)
C	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
D	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles

45. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the losses
B	To lower the Q
C	To increase the SWR bandwidth
D	To cancel capacitive reactance

46. - E9E12

What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

Select	Answer
A	It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
B	It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
C	It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
D	It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands

47. - E9F14

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very high impedance
B	The same as the output impedance of the generator
C	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G11

How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

Select	Answer
A	In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
B	In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
C	In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
D	In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
B	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
C	It should be one or more wavelengths long
D	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

50. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

Select	Answer
A	Polyethylene
B	Polytetrafluroethylene
C	Polychlorinated Biphenyls
D	Polymorphic silicon

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-2