US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A14

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	60 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	1.5 kHz

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
B	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
C	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B	A control operator need not be present at the control point
C	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
D	A control operator must be present at the control point

4. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	2 meters
B	6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
C	6 meters and 2 meters
D	2 meters and 1.25 meters

5. - E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

Select	Answer
A	The VE session manager
B	Each administering VE
C	The FCC
D	The VEC coordinating the session

6. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

Select	Answer
A	A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline
B	A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border
C	A line roughly parallel to and north of the U.S.-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
D	A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline

7. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Select	Answer
A	The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
B	The location of the ground control station
C	Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
D	The uplink and downlink frequency ranges

8. - E2B12

How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
B	Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
C	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
D	Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
B	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
C	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
D	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log

10. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Select	Answer
A	High speed CW identification to avoid fading
B	Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
C	Storing and forwarding digital messages
D	Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	ALE can use any type of control
B	Local
C	Remote
D	Automatic

12. - E3A13

Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	RTTY
C	SSB
D	CW

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Morning
B	Afternoon or early evening
C	Noon
D	Late at night

14. - E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

Select	Answer
A	Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
B	Higher levels of solar UV radiation
C	Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
D	An increase in the critical frequency

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
D	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source

16. - E4B13

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S22
B	S12
C	S21
D	S11

17. - E4C13

How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
B	It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
C	It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
D	All of these choices are correct

18. - E4D03

How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

Select	Answer
A	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
B	When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
C	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
D	When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Ignition noise
C	Power line noise
D	Broadband white noise

20. - E5A14

What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	44.72 MHz
B	3.56 MHz
C	22.36 MHz
D	1.78 MHz

21. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
B	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
C	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D	Voltage and current are in phase

22. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	By Y and G values
B	By real and imaginary parts
C	By phase angle and amplitude
D	By X and R values

23. - E5D09

What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
B	It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
C	It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
D	It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit

24. - E6A11

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	1
C	3
D	2

25. - E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	A large region of intrinsic material
B	Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
C	Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
D	Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

26. - E6C05

What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Select	Answer
A	Lower distortion
B	Lower power consumption
C	Immune to damage from static discharge
D	Differential output capability

27. - E6D01

How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

Select	Answer
A	35 turns
B	13 turns
C	141 turns
D	79 turns

28. - E6E01

Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Select	Answer
A	It is used in a battery charger circuit
B	It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
C	It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
D	Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency

29. - E6F13

What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?

Select	Answer
A	A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
B	A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied
C	A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
D	A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

30. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

Select	Answer
A	A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
B	A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
C	A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
D	A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

31. - E7B16

What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Creation of parasitic oscillations
B	Transmission of spurious signals
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Low efficiency

32. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
B	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
C	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
D	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

33. - E7D16

When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
B	To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
C	To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	For higher efficiency
B	To reduce impulse noise reception
C	To remove third-order distortion products
D	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	In-phase and Quadrature
B	Inactive and Quiescent
C	Instantaneous and Quenched
D	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	7
B	14
C	28
D	0.07

37. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Select	Answer
A	Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
B	Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
C	Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
D	Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling

38. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog to digital converters?

Select	Answer
A	An error caused by irregular quantization step size
B	A small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time
C	A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
D	An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.167
B	0.6
C	1.67
D	60

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

Select	Answer
A	Excess 3 code
B	Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
C	Binary Coded Decimal Code
D	Gray code

41. - E8D08

What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	Baud rate
B	Signal to noise ratio
C	Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
D	Repeat Request Rate (RRR)

42. - E9A17

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	63.2 watts
B	632 watts
C	159 watts
D	252 watts

43. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

Select	Answer
A	12 dB
B	18 dB
C	24 dB
D	14 dB

44. - E9C05

What is an OCFD antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters
B	A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity
C	A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
D	A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation

45. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower Q
B	Improved radiation efficiency
C	Higher losses
D	Greater structural strength

46. - E9E12

What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
B	It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
C	It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
D	It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands

47. - E9F15

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	The same as the output impedance of the generator
C	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D	Very high impedance

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency
B	Points with constant resistance
C	Points with constant reactance
D	SWR

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A very sharp peak
B	Broad band response
C	A very sharp single null
D	High-radiation angle

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent
B	Only the most powerful transmitter
C	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
D	Only commercial transmitters

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-1