US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A09

What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Discontinue forwarding all messages
B	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
C	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
D	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
B	Specific local government channels
C	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
D	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

3. - E1C09

Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz
B	18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
C	29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz
D	24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
B	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
C	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
D	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
B	In a question pool maintained by the FCC
C	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
D	In FCC Part 97

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications in a language other than English
B	Communications that have a religious content
C	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
D	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From west to east
B	From north to south
C	From south to north
D	From east to west

8. - E2B08

Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Frequency modulation of the video carrier
C	Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
D	A separate VHF or UHF audio link

9. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
B	An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
C	A standard wireless router running custom software
D	A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem

10. - E2D09

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
B	PSK31
C	300 baud packet
D	AMTOR

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
B	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
C	It depends on the lunar phase
D	Stations take turns on alternate days

12. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
B	A fluttery irregular fading
C	The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
D	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

13. - E3B04

What is meant by the terms extraordinary and ordinary waves?

Select	Answer
A	Independent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
B	Extraordinary waves describe rare long skip propagation compared to ordinary waves which travel shorter distances
C	Refracted rays and reflected waves
D	Long path and short path waves

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class X
B	Class A
C	Class B
D	Class M

15. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplitude and frequency
B	RF amplitude and time
C	SWR and frequency
D	SWR and time

16. - E4B13

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S12
B	S21
C	S11
D	S22

17. - E4C17

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's linearity?

Select	Answer
A	Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
B	RAM speed used for data storage
C	Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
D	CPU register width in bits

18. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C final amplifier
B	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
C	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
D	A Class D final amplifier

19. - E4E10

What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

Select	Answer
A	The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
D	The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	23.5 kHz
B	23.5 MHz
C	7.12 MHz
D	7.12 kHz

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The sign is reversed
B	It is shifted by 90 degrees
C	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
D	It is unchanged

22. - E5C01

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	Omega
C	+jX
D	-jX

23. - E5D18

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

Select	Answer
A	1.42 mW
B	252 W
C	704 W
D	355 W

24. - E6A07

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Select	Answer
A	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
B	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
C	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
D	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts

25. - E6B04

What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Varactor diode
B	Silicon-controlled rectifier
C	Zener diode
D	Tunnel diode

26. - E6C11

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	2
C	5
D	6

27. - E6D16

What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to absorb transient voltage spikes?

Select	Answer
A	Clipper capacitor
B	Trimmer capacitor
C	Snubber capacitor
D	Feedback capacitor

28. - E6E07

Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Point-to-point construction
B	Ground-plane construction
C	Microstrip construction
D	Wave-soldering construction

29. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

Select	Answer
A	The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
B	The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
C	The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
D	The conversion of light to electrical energy

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
B	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Tune both the input and output for maximum power
B	Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
C	Use a phase inverter in the output filter
D	Tune the stage for maximum SWR

32. - E7C01

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
B	Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
C	A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output
D	Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground

33. - E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

Select	Answer
A	A shunt regulator
B	A series regulator
C	A constant current source
D	A shunt current source

34. - E7E12

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

Select	Answer
A	An automatic band-switching circuit
B	An FM generator circuit
C	A circuit for detecting FM signals
D	A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

35. - E7F07

What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?

Select	Answer
A	Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
B	Converting digital signals to analog form
C	Converting analog signals to digital form
D	Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
B	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
C	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
D	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition

37. - E7H08

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	Toroidal inductors
B	NP0 capacitors
C	Non-inductive resistors
D	Wirewound resistors

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

Select	Answer
A	Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
D	Improve accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	47
B	2.14
C	0.214
D	0.47

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 kHz
B	0.1 Hz
C	1.0 kHz
D	0.3 kHz

41. - E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

Select	Answer
A	It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
B	It includes built in error correction features
C	It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
D	It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

42. - E9A04

Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission-line length
B	Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
C	The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
D	Sunspot activity and time of day

43. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	7.5 degrees
B	75 degrees
C	45 degrees
D	25 degrees

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
C	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It might radiate harmonics
B	It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
C	It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
D	It must be neutralized

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
B	An SWR less than 1:1
C	An SWR greater than 1:1
D	A dielectric constant greater than 1

47. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 meters
B	6.9 meters
C	50 meters
D	10 meters

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Prime axis
B	Reactance axis
C	Impedance axis
D	Polar axis

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
B	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
C	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
D	It should be one or more wavelengths long

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
B	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
C	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
D	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

Figure E6-5

Figure E9-2

Figure E9-3