US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A03

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
B	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
C	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
D	No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge

2. - E1B07

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.5
B	3.0
C	2.0
D	1.0

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Select	Answer
A	Under local control there is no control operator
B	Under automatic control there is no control operator
C	Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
D	Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

4. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
B	2 meters and 1.25 meters
C	2 meters
D	6 meters and 2 meters

5. - E1E14

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
B	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
C	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
D	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
B	When the total money involved does not exceed $25
C	When transmitting international third-party communications
D	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency

7. - E2A02

What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From south to north
B	From north to south
C	From west to east
D	From east to west

8. - E2B19

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B	They are not permitted above 54 MHz
C	They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
D	They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	No additional indicator is required
B	The ARRL section of the remote station
C	/R# where # is the district of the remote station
D	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located

10. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

Select	Answer
A	15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
B	Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Use of high speed CW or digital modes

11. - E2E03

How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?

Select	Answer
A	Stations take turns on alternate days
B	By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
C	It depends on the lunar phase
D	Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals

12. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the MUF is above 30 MHz
B	When the Moon is at apogee
C	When the Moon is at perigee
D	When the Moon is full

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	5000 miles
B	7500 miles
C	1000 miles
D	2500 miles

14. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Southward
B	Northward
C	Westward
D	Eastward

15. - E4A11

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Select	Answer
A	Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
B	Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
C	Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B16

Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?

Select	Answer
A	S12
B	S11
C	S22
D	S21

17. - E4C04

How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
B	The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
C	The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
D	The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network

18. - E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	To increase rejection of unwanted signals
B	To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
C	To provide a range of AGC time constants
D	To store often-used frequencies

19. - E4E10

What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

Select	Answer
A	The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
B	All of these choices are correct
C	The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
D	The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band

20. - E5A15

Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Lower reactance
B	Higher self-resonant frequency
C	Lower self-resonant frequency
D	Lower losses

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of reactance
B	The magnetic impedance of a circuit
C	The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
D	A measure of the efficiency of a transformer

22. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday grid
B	Elliptical coordinates
C	Polar coordinates
D	Maidenhead grid

23. - E5D18

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

Select	Answer
A	252 W
B	704 W
C	1.42 mW
D	355 W

24. - E6A11

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	2
C	3
D	1

25. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive inverse voltage
B	Insufficient forward voltage
C	Excessive junction temperature
D	Charge carrier depletion

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
B	Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
C	Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
D	Logic devices that utilize ternary math

27. - E6D17

Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics and distortion could result
B	Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
C	RF susceptance would increase
D	Magnetic flux would increase with frequency

28. - E6E12

Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?

Select	Answer
A	Better dissipation of heat
B	High-voltage insulating ability
C	Enhanced sensitivity to light
D	To provide a low-pass frequency response

29. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

Select	Answer
A	The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
B	The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
C	The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
D	The conversion of light to electrical energy

30. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

Select	Answer
A	A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
B	A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
C	A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
D	A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Feedback
B	Load resistors
C	Fixed bias
D	Self bias

32. - E7C12

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

Select	Answer
A	A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
B	A Phase Inverter Load network
C	A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
D	A network with only three discrete parts

33. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
B	Input voltage divided by output current
C	Output voltage multiplied by output current
D	Input voltage multiplied by input current

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
B	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
C	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
D	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

35. - E7F07

What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?

Select	Answer
A	Converting digital signals to analog form
B	Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data
C	Converting analog signals to digital form
D	Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
B	An echo caused by a long time delay
C	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
D	A reduction in high frequency response

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a neutralizing capacitor
B	Through a tapped coil
C	Through a quartz crystal
D	Through link coupling

38. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Vector analysis
B	Numerical analysis
C	Differential analysis
D	Fourier analysis

39. - E8B10

What describes frequency division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
B	Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
C	The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
D	The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

40. - E8C07

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Select	Answer
A	15.36 kHz
B	9.6 kHz
C	4.8 kHz
D	5.76 kHz

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
B	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
C	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
D	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code

42. - E9A18

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

Select	Answer
A	Apparent power
B	Effective radiated power
C	Power factor
D	Half-power bandwidth

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
B	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
C	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
D	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection

44. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An end fed folded dipole antenna
B	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
C	A center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in phase)
D	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
B	It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
C	It might radiate harmonics
D	It must be neutralized

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Velocity factor
B	Dielectric constant
C	Reflection coefficient
D	Characteristic impedance

47. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	An inductive reactance
B	A capacitive reactance
C	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D	The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Prime axis
B	Reactance axis
C	Polar axis
D	Impedance axis

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	High-radiation angle
B	Broad band response
C	A very sharp peak
D	A very sharp single null

50. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

Select	Answer
A	Polymorphic silicon
B	Polychlorinated Biphenyls
C	Polyethylene
D	Polytetrafluroethylene

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1

Figure E9-3