US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A09

What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
B	Discontinue forwarding all messages
C	Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
D	Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
B	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
C	The amateur station must cease operation
D	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

3. - E1C01

What is a remotely controlled station?

Select	Answer
A	A station operating under automatic control
B	A station controlled indirectly through a control link
C	A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
D	A station operated away from its regular home location

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
D	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
C	A sentence of up to one year in prison
D	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant

6. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
B	A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
C	All of these choices are correct
D	The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From west to east
B	From south to north
C	From north to south
D	From east to west

8. - E2B14

What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

Select	Answer
A	Tone frequency
B	Tone amplitude
C	Sync amplitude
D	Sync frequency

9. - E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?

Select	Answer
A	Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
B	Contacts using tactical call signs
C	Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
D	Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
B	Latitude and longitude
C	Time and frequency
D	Polar coordinates

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
B	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
C	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
D	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	28 MHz - 148 MHz
B	220 MHz - 450 MHz
C	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
D	10 MHz - 14 MHz

13. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	10 meters
C	80 meters
D	6 meters

14. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Northward
B	Westward
C	Eastward
D	Southward

15. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

Select	Answer
A	SWR and time
B	RF amplitude and time
C	SWR and frequency
D	RF amplitude and frequency

16. - E4B03

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	1.4652 MHz
B	14.652 kHz
C	146.52 Hz
D	165.2 Hz

17. - E4C15

What is usually the primary source of noise that is heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Select	Answer
A	Atmospheric noise
B	Receiver front-end noise
C	Detector noise
D	Induction motor noise

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation interference
B	Neutralization
C	Adjacent channel interference
D	Amplifier desensitization

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Ignition noise
C	Power line noise
D	Broadband white noise

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum
B	R/L
C	L/R
D	Minimum

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	Y
C	B
D	G

22. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	By real and imaginary parts
B	By Y and G values
C	By phase angle and amplitude
D	By X and R values

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In the same direction as the current
B	In a direction opposite to the current
C	In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
D	In all directions; omni-directional

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
B	Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
C	Common Mode Oscillating System
D	Common Mode Organic Silicon

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a high voltage rectifier
B	As an RF switch
C	As a constant current source
D	As a constant voltage source

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	3
C	2
D	4

27. - E6D08

What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
B	Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance
C	Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability
D	Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same inductance

28. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
B	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
C	Package mounts in a direct inverted position
D	Low leakage doubly insulated package

29. - E6F12

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	Photons
B	Protons
C	Electrons
D	Holes

30. - E7A10

What is a truth table?

Select	Answer
A	A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
B	A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
C	A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
D	A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

31. - E7B18

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	High power gain
B	Low input impedance
C	Low bandwidth
D	High filament voltage

32. - E7C13

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
B	Pi-networks have fewer components
C	L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
D	Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output

33. - E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	To self-resonate at the hum frequency
B	To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
C	It is a brute force filter for the output
D	It bypasses hum around D1

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
B	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
C	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
D	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

35. - E7F12

What digital process is applied to I and Q signals in order to recover the baseband modulation information?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature mixing
B	Signal conditioning
C	Fast Fourier Transform
D	Decimation

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
B	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
C	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
D	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A direct digital synthesizer
B	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
C	A phase locked loop synthesizer
D	A hybrid synthesizer

38. - E8A01

What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	Vector analysis
B	Numerical analysis
C	Differential analysis
D	Fourier analysis

39. - E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	2.14
B	47
C	0.214
D	0.47

40. - E8C10

What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits

Select	Answer
A	It facilitates error detection
B	It has more possible states than simple binary
C	It has more resolution than simple binary
D	It increases security

41. - E8D09

What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	-30 dB
B	+10 dB
C	-20 dB
D	+15 dB

42. - E9A17

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	63.2 watts
B	632 watts
C	159 watts
D	252 watts

43. - E9B03

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

Select	Answer
A	12 dB
B	18 dB
C	24 dB
D	14 dB

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
C	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Higher losses
B	Improved radiation efficiency
C	Lower Q
D	Greater structural strength

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR greater than 1:1
B	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
C	An SWR less than 1:1
D	A dielectric constant greater than 1

47. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
B	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
C	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D	The index of shielding for coaxial cable

48. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
B	Beam headings and radiation patterns
C	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
D	Trigonometric functions

49. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
B	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
C	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
D	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position

50. - E0A03

Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
B	All of the choices are correct
C	Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
D	Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-1