US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-issued amateur license
B	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
C	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
D	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
B	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
B	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
C	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
D	An indication of increased antenna reflected power

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C	The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
D	The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
C	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
D	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

7. - E2A10

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Select	Answer
A	Because the satellite is spinning
B	Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
C	Because of ionospheric absorption
D	Because of the Doppler Effect

8. - E2B19

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B	They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C	They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D	They are not permitted above 54 MHz

9. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

Select	Answer
A	The most common set of contest rules
B	The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
C	A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
D	A standard for submission of electronic contest logs

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Latitude and longitude
B	Time and frequency
C	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
D	Polar coordinates

11. - E2E12

Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Local
B	ALE can use any type of control
C	Automatic
D	Remote

12. - E3A01

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
B	2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
C	500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
D	5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around sunrise
B	Any time
C	Early evening
D	Around sunset

14. - E3C09

How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

Select	Answer
A	Twice as great
B	Four times as great
C	10 percent greater
D	50 percent greater

15. - E4A11

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Select	Answer
A	Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
D	Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible

16. - E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

Select	Answer
A	75 watts
B	100 watts
C	25 watts
D	125 watts

17. - E4C08

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

Select	Answer
A	One-half the maximum sampling buffer size
B	One-half the maximum sample rate
C	The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
D	The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter

18. - E4D13

Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Squelch gain misadjusted
B	Audio bias adjusted too high
C	Strong adjacent channel signals
D	Audio gain adjusted too low

19. - E4E16

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

Select	Answer
A	Reactive current only
B	Return current
C	Common-mode current
D	Differential-mode current

20. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

Select	Answer
A	315.6 Hz
B	157.8 Hz
C	47.3 kHz
D	23.67 kHz

21. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B	68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C	14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D	14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

22. - E5C13

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday grid
B	Rectangular coordinates
C	Maidenhead grid
D	Elliptical coordinates

23. - E5D16

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.577
B	1.73
C	0.866
D	0.5

24. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?

Select	Answer
A	In microwave circuits
B	In very low frequency RF circuits
C	In high-current rectifier circuits
D	In high-power audio circuits

25. - E6B13

What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward bias
B	Reverse bias
C	Inductive bias
D	Zero bias

26. - E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the sensitivity
B	To cause the output to change states continually
C	To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
D	To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

27. - E6D07

What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

Select	Answer
A	From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
B	From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
C	From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
D	From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Virtual lead mounting
B	Direct soldering
C	Stripped lead
D	Surface mount

29. - E6F13

What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
B	A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
C	A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
D	A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters which becomes opaque when voltage is applied

30. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

Select	Answer
A	It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
B	It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
C	It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
D	It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

31. - E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Select	Answer
A	Fixed bias
B	Voltage regulation
C	Emitter load
D	Collector load

32. - E7C09

What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?

Select	Answer
A	A filter that removes impulse noise E7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter
B	An automatic notch filter
C	A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
D	A special filter that emphasizes image responses

33. - E7D16

When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
B	To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
C	To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer blanking occurs
B	Spurious mixer products are generated
C	A beat frequency is generated
D	Automatic limiting occurs

35. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

Select	Answer
A	At half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
B	At twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
C	At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
D	At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal

36. - E7G02

What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	An echo caused by a long time delay
B	A reduction in high frequency response
C	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
D	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

37. - E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
C	Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
D	Use a GPS signal reference

38. - E8A13

Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Select	Answer
A	Level shifting
B	Harmonic regeneration
C	Sequential sampling
D	Phase reversal

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
B	Extremely low-power contacts
C	High speed digital modes
D	EME

40. - E8C03

When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the particular mode
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous detector
D	It improves carrier suppression

41. - E8D09

What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

Select	Answer
A	+10 dB
B	+15 dB
C	-20 dB
D	-30 dB

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
B	To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
C	To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
D	To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

43. - E9B08

How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Select	Answer
A	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
B	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
C	Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
D	Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference

44. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in phase)
B	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
C	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles
D	An end fed folded dipole antenna

45. - E9D13

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR is reduced
B	The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
C	The front-to-back ratio decreases
D	The front-to-back ratio increases

46. - E9E11

What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Select	Answer
A	Use the universal stub matching technique
B	Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
C	Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
D	Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

47. - E9F13

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the generator output impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
C	Very low impedance
D	Very high impedance

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Radiation resistance
B	Impedance along transmission lines
C	Antenna radiation pattern
D	Radio propagation

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It has a bidirectional pattern
B	It receives equally well in all directions
C	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
D	It is non-rotatable

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Beryllium Oxide
B	Mica
C	Uranium Hexafluoride
D	Zinc oxide

Figure E7-2