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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A06

Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

SelectAnswer
AOn any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
BAt the center frequency of the channel
CAt the highest frequency of the channel
DAt the lowest frequency of the channel

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

SelectAnswer
AMilitary Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
BSpecific local government channels
CAll amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
DSpecific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

SelectAnswer
AUnder automatic control there is no control operator
BUnder automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
CUnder local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
DUnder local control there is no control operator

4. - E1D06

Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

SelectAnswer
AThe space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
BThe space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
CThe space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
DAll of these choices are correct

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BThree VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
CPhotocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
DIssue the examinee the new or upgrade license

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

SelectAnswer
ACommunications in a language other than English
BCommunications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
CCommunications that have a religious content
DCommunications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

SelectAnswer
AFrom west to east
BFrom north to south
CFrom south to north
DFrom east to west

8. - E2B16

Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

SelectAnswer
ADRM
BPAL
CNTSC
DScottie

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

SelectAnswer
ANo additional indicator is required
BThe ARRL section of the remote station
C/R# where # is the district of the remote station
D/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

SelectAnswer
AIt supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
BIt controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
CIt can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
DAll of these choices are correct

11. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

SelectAnswer
AOne of the signal filters is saturated
BThe receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
CSelective fading has occurred
DThe mark and space signal have been inverted

12. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe jet stream
BWind shear
CDust devil
DTemperature inversion

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

SelectAnswer
AAround sunrise
BAround sunset
CAny time
DEarly evening

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

SelectAnswer
AClass X
BClass M
CClass A
DClass B

15. - E4A15

What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not require an expensive high-precision time base
BIt can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
CIt provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
DIt can run on battery power for remote measurements

16. - E4B11

How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
AConnect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
BLoosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
CLoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
DConnect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

SelectAnswer
AIt limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
BIt can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
CIt reduces receiver sensitivity
DIt decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range

18. - E4D07

Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
BA large increase in background noise
CA reduction in apparent signal strength
DThe desired signal can no longer be heard

19. - E4E10

What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

SelectAnswer
AThe interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
BAll of these choices are correct
CThe interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
DThe interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver

20. - E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately equal to circuit resistance
BLow, as compared to the circuit resistance
CApproximately equal to inductive reactance
DApproximately equal to capacitive reactance

21. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A110 seconds
B440 seconds
C220 seconds
D55 seconds

22. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
AMaidenhead grid
BPolar coordinates
CFaraday grid
DElliptical coordinates

23. - E5D09

What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

SelectAnswer
AIt is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
BIt is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
CIt is dissipated as heat in the circuit
DIt is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated

24. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

SelectAnswer
ACorner frequency
BAlpha cutoff frequency
CBeta cutoff frequency
DAlpha rejection frequency

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

SelectAnswer
AA sub-harmonic pump signal
BCapacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
CReverse voltage larger than the RF signal
DForward DC bias current

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

SelectAnswer
AAbility to connect many device outputs to a common bus
BHigh speed operation
CLow power consumption
DMore efficient arithmetic operations

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

SelectAnswer
AAdjacent inductors become over-coupled
BThe inductor windings are over coupled
CThe ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
DThe inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover

28. - E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

SelectAnswer
A-20 dBm
B-10 dB
C44 dBm
D2 dB

29. - E6F14

Which of the following is true of LCD displays?

SelectAnswer
AThey only display alphanumeric symbols
BAll of these choices are correct
CThey are hard to view in high ambient light conditions
DThey may be hard view through polarized lenses

30. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

SelectAnswer
AAstable multivibrator
BT flip-flop
CMonostable multivibrator
DJ-K flip-flop

31. - E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

SelectAnswer
ASelf bias
BFixed bias
COutput load resistor
DEmitter bypass

32. - E7C08

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

SelectAnswer
AThe gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
BThe relative frequencies of the individual crystals
CThe amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
DThe DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

33. - E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

SelectAnswer
AIt provides a constant load for the voltage source
BIt provides negative feedback to improve regulation
CIt provides D1 with current
DIt increases the current-handling capability of the regulator

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

SelectAnswer
AFor compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
BTo remove third-order distortion products
CTo reduce impulse noise reception
DFor higher efficiency

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

SelectAnswer
AA phase-inverting filter
BAn adaptive filter
CA Hilbert-transform filter
DA crystal-lattice filter

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

SelectAnswer
AAs a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
BFor smoothing power supply output
CAs an audio filter in a receiver
DAs a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers

37. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

SelectAnswer
APhotovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
BComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
CFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation
DWide-band AF and RF power amplification

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

SelectAnswer
AAll of these choices are correct
BHuman speech
CVideo signals
DData

39. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

SelectAnswer
A6000
B1/3
C3
D2000

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

SelectAnswer
ASpecial polynomial codes provide automatic correction
BSpecial binary codes provide automatic correction
CIf errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
DIf errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

SelectAnswer
ABaudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
BBaudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
CBaudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
DBaudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
BTo calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
CTo calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
DTo measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

SelectAnswer
A25 degrees
B30 degrees
C50 degrees
D75 degrees

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
BA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
CA multi-band trap antenna
DA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
BIt must be neutralized
CIt is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
DIt might radiate harmonics

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

SelectAnswer
AThe delta match
BThe gamma match
CThe stub match
DThe epsilon match

47. - E9F07

How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

SelectAnswer
ASmaller reflection coefficient
BLower velocity factor
CHigher SWR
DLower loss

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
AAntenna radiation pattern
BRadio propagation
CImpedance along transmission lines
DRadiation resistance

49. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
AAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
BAll of these choices are correct
CLow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
DThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

SelectAnswer
AOnly the most powerful transmitter
BEach transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
COnly commercial transmitters
DEach transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-1