US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
B	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
C	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
D	Any FCC-issued amateur license

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
B	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
C	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
D	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC

3. - E1C07

What is meant by local control?

Select	Answer
A	Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
B	Automatically manipulating local station controls
C	Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
D	Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
D	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E14

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
B	Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
C	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
D	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
D	When transmitting international third-party communications

7. - E2A10

Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler Effect
B	Because the satellite is spinning
C	Because of ionospheric absorption
D	Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude

8. - E2B04

What is blanking in a video signal?

Select	Answer
A	Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
B	Transmitting a black and white test pattern
C	Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
D	Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To relay calls to and from a DX station
B	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
C	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
D	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Time and frequency
B	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
C	Polar coordinates
D	Latitude and longitude

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	110 baud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	48 baud

12. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Dust devil
B	Wind shear
C	Temperature inversion
D	The jet stream

13. - E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	1000 miles
B	5000 miles
C	7500 miles
D	2500 miles

14. - E3C15

What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?

Select	Answer
A	Increased transequatorial propagation likely
B	A meteor ping
C	Long-path propagation is occurring
D	A solar flare has occurred

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation monitor
B	Logic analyzer
C	Network analyzer
D	Bit error rate tester

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Input attenuator accuracy
B	Temperature coefficient of the logic
C	Decade divider accuracy
D	Time base accuracy

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces receiver sensitivity
B	It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
C	It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
D	It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation interference
B	Adjacent channel interference
C	Amplifier desensitization
D	Neutralization

19. - E4E13

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Select	Answer
A	A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
B	A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
C	Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
D	All of these choices are correct

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum
B	Minimum
C	L/R
D	R/L

21. - E5B09

What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
B	Voltage and current are in phase
C	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

22. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

Select	Answer
A	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
B	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
C	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
D	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	141.4 Watts
B	200 Watts
C	70.7 Watts
D	100 Watts

24. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Select	Answer
A	Donor impurity
B	Acceptor impurity
C	N-type impurity
D	Insulator impurity

25. - E6B04

What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon-controlled rectifier
B	Tunnel diode
C	Zener diode
D	Varactor diode

26. - E6C10

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	3
C	4
D	2

27. - E6D11

How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

Select	Answer
A	43 turns
B	229 turns
C	4 turns
D	2 turns

28. - E6E01

Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Select	Answer
A	It is used in a battery charger circuit
B	Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
C	It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
D	It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter

29. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

Select	Answer
A	A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
B	A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
C	A device which measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
D	A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
C	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B01

For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 180 degrees
B	Exactly 180 degrees
C	The entire cycle
D	More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees

32. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
B	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
C	Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
D	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

33. - E7D12

What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
B	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
C	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
D	Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
B	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
C	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
D	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

35. - E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	A Hilbert-transform filter
B	A crystal-lattice filter
C	A phase-inverting filter
D	An adaptive filter

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
B	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
C	For smoothing power supply output
D	As an audio filter in a receiver

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A direct digital synthesizer
B	A hybrid synthesizer
C	A phase locked loop synthesizer
D	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

38. - E8A12

What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Select	Answer
A	Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
D	Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
B	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
C	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
D	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier

40. - E8C03

When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	It improves carrier suppression
B	It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous detector
C	All of these choices are correct
D	This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the particular mode

41. - E8D06

Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid signal fading
B	Harmonics on higher bands
C	Strong ALC action
D	High reflected power

42. - E9A14

What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
B	The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
C	The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
D	The specific impedance of the antenna

43. - E9B16

How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	3
C	4
D	7

44. - E9C02

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
B	Cardioid
C	A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
D	Omni-directional

45. - E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

Select	Answer
A	SWR bandwidth increases
B	More common-mode current is present on the feed line
C	Gain is reduced
D	SWR bandwidth decreases

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
B	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
C	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
D	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna

47. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	15 meters
B	10 meters
C	71 meters
D	20 meters

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	SWR
B	Points with constant reactance
C	Frequency
D	Points with constant resistance

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A large circularly polarized antenna
B	A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
C	A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
D	One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil

50. - E0A09

Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Select	Answer
A	Uranium Hexafluoride
B	Zinc oxide
C	Mica
D	Beryllium Oxide

Figure E6-5

Figure E9-2