US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A01

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz below the upper band edge
B	300 Hz below the upper band edge
C	1 kHz below the upper band edge
D	The exact upper band edge

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	10 miles
B	3 miles
C	1 mile
D	30 miles

3. - E1C02

What is meant by automatic control of a station?

Select	Answer
A	The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
B	The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
C	A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
D	Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link

4. - E1D03

What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere
B	An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
C	An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
D	An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

5. - E1E01

What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	4
C	3
D	2

6. - E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

Select	Answer
A	A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline
B	A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border
C	A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastline
D	A line roughly parallel to and north of the U.S.-Mexican border and Gulf coastline

7. - E2A13

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

Select	Answer
A	Geomagnetic
B	Geostationary
C	HEO
D	LEO

8. - E2B07

What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Select	Answer
A	Hue
B	Chroma
C	Spectral Intensity
D	Luminance

9. - E2C10

Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
B	To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
C	To separate the calling stations from the DX station
D	All of these choices are correct

10. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Use of high speed CW or digital modes
C	Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
D	15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	110 baud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	48 baud

12. - E3A06

Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Rain droplets must be within the E layer
C	Rain droplets must be electrically charged
D	The rain must be within radio range of both stations

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	6 meters to 2 meters
B	160 meters to 40 meters
C	30 meters to 10 meters
D	160 meters to 10 meters

14. - E3C09

How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

Select	Answer
A	Four times as great
B	50 percent greater
C	10 percent greater
D	Twice as great

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Logic analyzer
B	Bit error rate tester
C	Modulation monitor
D	Network analyzer

16. - E4B05

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	146.52 kHz
B	146.52 Hz
C	10 Hz
D	1465.20 Hz

17. - E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

Select	Answer
A	6000 Hz
B	100 Hz
C	300 Hz
D	2400 Hz

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Adjacent channel interference
B	Amplifier desensitization
C	Neutralization
D	Intermodulation interference

19. - E4E04

How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

Select	Answer
A	By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
B	By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
C	By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and a blocking capacitor in the field lead
D	By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads

20. - E5A17

What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Matching bandwidth is decreased
B	Matching bandwidth is increased
C	Matching range is increased
D	It has no effect on impedance matching

21. - E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B	14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C	14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D	76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

22. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

Select	Answer
A	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
B	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
C	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
D	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance

23. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

Select	Answer
A	To maintain component lifetime
B	All of these choices are correct
C	To avoid unwanted inductive reactance
D	To increase the thermal time constant

24. - E6A17

What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Gate, drain, source
B	Emitter, base 1, base 2
C	Gate 1, gate 2, drain
D	Emitter, base, collector

25. - E6B09

What is a common use for point contact diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As a high voltage rectifier
B	As a constant voltage source
C	As a constant current source
D	As an RF detector

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High speed operation
C	More efficient arithmetic operations
D	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus

27. - E6D14

Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered-iron
B	Ferrite
C	Brass
D	Ceramic

28. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
B	Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
C	The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
D	Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

29. - E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

Select	Answer
A	The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
B	The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
C	The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
D	The conversion of light to electrical energy

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An "OR" gate
B	An "AND" gate
C	A flip-flop
D	A clock

31. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
B	Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
C	At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
D	At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

32. - E7C12

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

Select	Answer
A	A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
B	A Phase Inverter Load network
C	A network with only three discrete parts
D	A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

33. - E7D10

What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The inverter design does not require any output filtering
B	It uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to create free power from the unused portion of the AC cycle
C	The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
D	It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

34. - E7E03

How does an analog phase modulator function?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
B	By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
C	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
D	By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

35. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

Select	Answer
A	Processor latency
B	Sample width in bits
C	Sample clock phase noise
D	Sample rate

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	1000 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low

37. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Select	Answer
A	Taft, Hartley and Pierce
B	Pierce, Fenner and Beane
C	Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
D	Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A sawtooth wave
B	A cosine wave
C	A sine wave
D	A square wave

39. - E8B08

What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
B	A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically related frequencies
C	A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
D	A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions

40. - E8C05

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 13 Hz
B	Approximately 52 Hz
C	Approximately 104 Hz
D	Approximately 26 Hz

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	Faster transmission rate
B	Foreign language characters can be sent
C	The signal can overpower interfering signals
D	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

42. - E9A07

What is meant by antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
B	The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
C	The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
D	The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses

43. - E9B02

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

Select	Answer
A	14 dB
B	18 dB
C	24 dB
D	36 dB

44. - E9C05

What is an OCFD antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
B	A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
C	A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity
D	An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters

45. - E9D06

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes flat
B	It is increased
C	No change occurs
D	It is decreased

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The delta match
B	The omega match
C	The gamma match
D	The stub match

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	The same as the input impedance to the generator
D	Very high impedance

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Smith chart
B	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
C	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
D	Free space radiation directivity chart

49. - E9H04

What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
B	It automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations
C	It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
D	It is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
B	Only commercial transmitters
C	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent
D	Only the most powerful transmitter

Figure E9-1

Figure E9-3