US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
B	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
C	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
D	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
B	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
C	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
D	The amateur station must cease operation

3. - E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

Select	Answer
A	3 minutes
B	10 minutes
C	5 minutes
D	30 seconds

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
D	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
B	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
C	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
D	All these choices are correct

6. - E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
B	It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
C	It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
D	It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

7. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Select	Answer
A	The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
B	The location of the ground control station
C	Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
D	The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	52.525 MHz
B	1255 MHz
C	14.230 MHz
D	29.6 MHz

9. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

Select	Answer
A	To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
B	To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
C	To relay calls to and from a DX station
D	To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
B	Polar coordinates
C	Latitude and longitude
D	Time and frequency

11. - E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C	PSK31
D	300-baud packet

12. - E3A10

Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The jet stream
B	Dust devil
C	Wind shear
D	Temperature inversion

13. - E3B07

Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

Select	Answer
A	High D layer absorption
B	Meteor scatter
C	Receipt of a signal by more than one path
D	Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF

14. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

Select	Answer
A	Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
B	Duration of long-delayed echoes
C	Geomagnetic field stability
D	Critical frequency for vertical transmissions

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A logic analyzer
B	A spectrum analyzer
C	A wattmeter
D	A time-domain reflectometer

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	14.652 Hz
B	1.4652 Hz
C	1.4652 kHz
D	0.1 MHz

17. - E4C17

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's linearity?

Select	Answer
A	RAM speed used for data storage
B	CPU register width in bits
C	Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
D	Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation interference
B	Adjacent channel interference
C	Amplifier desensitization
D	Neutralization

19. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	FM signals can no longer be demodulated
B	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
C	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
D	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

20. - E5A05

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Select	Answer
A	R/L
B	Minimum
C	Maximum
D	L/R

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	G
C	X
D	B

22. - E5C13

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday grid
B	Elliptical coordinates
C	Maidenhead grid
D	Rectangular coordinates

23. - E5D06

In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

Select	Answer
A	In all directions; omni-directional
B	In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
C	In the same direction as the current
D	In a direction opposite to the current

24. - E6A08

What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	Alpha rejection frequency
B	Corner frequency
C	Alpha cutoff frequency
D	Beta cutoff frequency

25. - E6B04

What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Varactor diode
B	Tunnel diode
C	Silicon-controlled rectifier
D	Zener diode

26. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

Select	Answer
A	The comparator enters latch-up
B	The comparator changes its output state
C	The IC input can be damaged
D	The feedback loop becomes unstable

27. - E6D14

Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrite
B	Brass
C	Powdered-iron
D	Ceramic

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

Select	Answer
A	TO-220
B	Radial lead
C	Surface mount
D	Axial lead

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Selenium
B	Silicon
C	Copper oxide
D	Cadmium Sulfide

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	An "AND" gate
C	An "OR" gate
D	A clock

31. - E7B08

How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing the driving power
B	By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
C	By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
D	By increasing the driving power

32. - E7C14

Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Select	Answer
A	Single-Sideband voice
B	Video
C	Digital
D	Meteor scatter

33. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Input voltage divided by output current
B	Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
C	Output voltage multiplied by output current
D	Input voltage multiplied by input current

34. - E7E07

What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
B	The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
C	The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
D	The frequency components present in the modulating signal

35. - E7F09

Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
B	It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
C	It removes high-frequency signal components which would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
D	It removes low frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	76
B	38
C	0.03
D	1

37. - E7H14

What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
B	An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
C	An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
D	An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave
B	A cosine wave
C	A sawtooth wave
D	A square wave

39. - E8B10

What describes frequency division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
B	Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
C	Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
D	The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

40. - E8C10

What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits

Select	Answer
A	It has more resolution than simple binary
B	It increases security
C	It facilitates error detection
D	It has more possible states than simple binary

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
B	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
C	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
D	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code

42. - E9A15

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	420 watts
B	286 watts
C	78.7 watts
D	1977 watts

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Antenna gain
C	SWR vs frequency charts
D	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns

44. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

Select	Answer
A	The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
B	The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
C	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
D	The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction

45. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
B	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
C	A 50 ohm resistor connected to ground
D	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke

46. - E9E11

What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Select	Answer
A	Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
B	Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
C	Use the universal stub matching technique
D	Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

47. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	A capacitive reactance
D	An inductive reactance

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Points with constant resistance
B	Frequency
C	SWR
D	Points with constant reactance

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
C	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
D	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions

50. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Select	Answer
A	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
B	Microwaves are ionizing radiation
C	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
D	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

Figure E7-4