US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
C	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
D	Any FCC-issued amateur license

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	30 miles
B	1 mile
C	3 miles
D	10 miles

3. - E1C13

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

Select	Answer
A	You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
B	The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
C	You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
D	You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign

4. - E1D04

What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
B	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere
C	An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
D	Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

5. - E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
C	A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
D	A sentence of up to one year in prison

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any licensed amateur operator

7. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A log-periodic dipole array
C	A linearly polarized antenna
D	A circularly polarized antenna

8. - E2B17

What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2 MHz
C	600 Hz
D	6 MHz

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
B	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
C	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
D	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

10. - E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Digipeating
B	Store-and-forward
C	Node hopping
D	Multi-satellite relaying

11. - E2E01

Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	FSK
B	Spread spectrum
C	DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
D	Pulse modulation

12. - E3A01

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

Select	Answer
A	2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
B	500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
C	12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
D	5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters to 40 meters
B	160 meters to 10 meters
C	30 meters to 10 meters
D	6 meters to 2 meters

14. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
B	By approximately four times the distance
C	By approximately twice the distance
D	By approximately 15 percent of the distance

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
B	Match the antenna to the load
C	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	The relative time between measurements
B	Relative quality of the data
C	Frequency order of the measurements
D	The port or ports at which measurements are made

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum detectable spectrum
B	The minimum discernible signal
C	The multiplex distortion stability
D	The meter display sensitivity

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation interference
B	Neutralization
C	Adjacent channel interference
D	Amplifier desensitization

19. - E4E06

What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Select	Answer
A	Meteor showers
B	Thunderstorms
C	Solar radio frequency emissions
D	Geomagnetic storms

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	23.5 MHz
B	7.12 MHz
C	7.12 kHz
D	23.5 kHz

21. - E5B03

What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is shifted by 90 degrees
B	The sign is reversed
C	It is unchanged
D	The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle

22. - E5C13

What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday grid
B	Elliptical coordinates
C	Maidenhead grid
D	Rectangular coordinates

23. - E5D03

What is microstrip?

Select	Answer
A	Lightweight transmission line made of common zip cord
B	Miniature coax used for low power applications
C	Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
D	Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
B	Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
C	Common Mode Oscillating System
D	Common Mode Organic Silicon

25. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
B	A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
C	A negative resistance region
D	A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current

26. - E6C10

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	2
B	3
C	1
D	4

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Permeability
B	Resistance
C	Reactivity
D	Thermal impedance

28. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
B	The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
C	Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
D	Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	A crystalline semiconductor
B	A heavy metal
C	A liquid semiconductor
D	An ordinary metal

30. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

Select	Answer
A	It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
B	It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
C	It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
D	It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time

31. - E7B03

Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
B	A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
C	A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
D	A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
B	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
C	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals
D	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals

33. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
B	To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
C	To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
D	To allow for remote control of the power supply

34. - E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

Select	Answer
A	A reactance modulator on the oscillator
B	A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
C	A balanced modulator on the oscillator
D	A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier

35. - E7F15

Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	FIR filters delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
C	FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
D	FIR filters can respond faster to impulses

36. - E7G04

What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
B	The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
C	The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
D	The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage

37. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A hybrid synthesizer
B	A direct digital synthesizer
C	A phase locked loop synthesizer
D	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

38. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	100 to 1
B	1 to 1
C	2.5 to 1
D	25 to 1

39. - E8B09

What is meant by deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
C	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	Baud is only used for RTTY
B	They are the same
C	Baud is twice the symbol rate
D	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
B	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
C	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
D	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

42. - E9A13

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	6.17 dB
B	9.85 dB
C	14.15 dB
D	12.5 dB

43. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	Azimuth
B	Elevation
C	Radiation resistance
D	Polarization

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
B	A multi-band trap antenna
C	A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
D	A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops

45. - E9D06

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

Select	Answer
A	It is increased
B	It is decreased
C	It becomes flat
D	No change occurs

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
B	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
C	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
D	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics

47. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	71 meters
B	10 meters
C	15 meters
D	20 meters

48. - E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and impedance
B	Resistance and reactance
C	Reactance and voltage
D	Resistance and voltage

49. - E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
B	It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
C	It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
D	It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

50. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Select	Answer
A	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
B	Microwaves are ionizing radiation
C	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
D	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

Figure E6-5

Figure E9-2