US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
D	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

2. - E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
B	Specific local government channels
C	Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
D	Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels

3. - E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

Select	Answer
A	30 seconds
B	10 minutes
C	3 minutes
D	5 minutes

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
C	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
D	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

5. - E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Friends of the VE
C	Employees of the VE
D	Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules

6. - E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

Select	Answer
A	420 MHz - 430 MHz
B	440 MHz - 450 MHz
C	53 MHz - 54 MHz
D	222 MHz - 223 MHz

7. - E2A03

What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

Select	Answer
A	The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
B	The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
C	The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
D	The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

8. - E2B05

Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
B	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
C	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
D	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information

9. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
B	In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
C	At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
D	In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency

10. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
B	Use of high speed CW or digital modes
C	15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
D	All of these choices are correct

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	110 baud
D	48 baud

12. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
B	A fluttery irregular fading
C	The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
D	A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises

13. - E3B14

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They become elliptically polarized
B	Their polarization is randomly modified
C	They become phase-locked
D	They are bent toward the magnetic poles

14. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

Select	Answer
A	Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
B	Geomagnetic field stability
C	Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
D	Duration of long-delayed echoes

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
B	Match the antenna to the load
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	1.4652 Hz
B	0.1 MHz
C	1.4652 kHz
D	14.652 Hz

17. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

Select	Answer
A	14.755 MHz
B	14.445 MHz
C	15.210 MHz
D	13.845 MHz

18. - E4D14

Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Select	Answer
A	Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
B	Raise the receiver IF frequency
C	Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
D	Increase the receiver front end gain

19. - E4E08

What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B	An electrical-sparking signal
C	Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
D	A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency

20. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
B	The voltage and current are in phase
C	The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
D	The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

21. - E5B06

What is susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic impedance of a circuit
B	A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
C	The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
D	The inverse of reactance

22. - E5C11

What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?

Select	Answer
A	The magnitude and phase of the point
B	The sine and cosine values
C	The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
D	The tangent and cotangent values

23. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts
B	400 watts
C	80 watts
D	2000 watts

24. - E6A09

What is a depletion-mode FET?

Select	Answer
A	An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
B	Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
C	An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
D	Any FET without a channel

25. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

Select	Answer
A	As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
B	As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
C	As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
D	As balanced mixers in FM generation

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
B	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
C	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
D	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
B	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
C	The inductor windings are over coupled
D	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Direct soldering
B	Stripped lead
C	Surface mount
D	Virtual lead mounting

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	An ordinary metal
B	A heavy metal
C	A liquid semiconductor
D	A crystalline semiconductor

30. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Select	Answer
A	Monostable multivibrator
B	T flip-flop
C	Astable multivibrator
D	J-K flip-flop

31. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
B	Signal inversion
C	Increased overall intelligibility
D	Reduced intermodulation products

32. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

Select	Answer
A	A Butterworth filter
B	A Chebyshev filter
C	An active LC filter
D	A passive op-amp filter

33. - E7D16

When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
B	To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
C	To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
D	All of these choices are correct

34. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A beat frequency is generated
B	Automatic limiting occurs
C	Mixer blanking occurs
D	Spurious mixer products are generated

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	Inactive and Quiescent
B	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable
C	Instantaneous and Quenched
D	In-phase and Quadrature

36. - E7G06

Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

Select	Answer
A	As an audio filter in a receiver
B	For smoothing power supply output
C	As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
D	As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers

37. - E7H08

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

Select	Answer
A	Wirewound resistors
B	Toroidal inductors
C	Non-inductive resistors
D	NP0 capacitors

38. - E8A04

What is "dither" with respect to analog to digital converters?

Select	Answer
A	An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
B	An error caused by irregular quantization step size
C	A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
D	A small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more precise representation of a signal over time

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	High speed digital modes
B	EME
C	Extremely low-power contacts
D	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

40. - E8C02

What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

Select	Answer
A	The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link
B	The rate at which the waveform of a transmitted signal changes to convey information
C	The duration of each bit in a message sent over the air
D	The number of control characters in a message packet

41. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

Select	Answer
A	Low-pass filters at the transmitter output
B	High-pass filters at the transmitter output
C	Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
D	Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times

42. - E9A18

What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

Select	Answer
A	Half-power bandwidth
B	Power factor
C	Apparent power
D	Effective radiated power

43. - E9B05

What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization
B	Elevation
C	Radiation resistance
D	Azimuth

44. - E9C13

What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces low-angle radiation
B	It causes increased SWR
C	It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
D	It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

45. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
B	A 50 ohm resistor connected to ground
C	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
D	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
B	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
C	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
D	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network

47. - E9F15

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Very high impedance
D	The same as the output impedance of the generator

48. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
B	Trigonometric functions
C	Beam headings and radiation patterns
D	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines

49. - E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It should be configured as a four-sided loop
B	It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
C	Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
D	It should be one or more wavelengths long

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
B	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
C	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
D	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

Figure E9-2