US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B	The control operators of all the stations in the system
C	The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
D	The control operator of the originating station

2. - E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

Select	Answer
A	10 miles
B	1 mile
C	30 miles
D	3 miles

3. - E1C12

What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Select	Answer
A	Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
B	Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature

4. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

Select	Answer
A	33 cm and 13 cm
B	70 cm only
C	70 cm and 33 cm
D	70 cm and 13 cm

5. - E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
B	Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
C	Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
D	Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

6. - E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

Select	Answer
A	It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
B	It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
C	The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
D	It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station

7. - E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

Select	Answer
A	From west to east
B	From north to south
C	From south to north
D	From east to west

8. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

Select	Answer
A	A special front end limiter
B	No other hardware is needed
C	A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
D	A special IF converter

9. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
B	A standard wireless router running custom software
C	A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
D	A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem

10. - E2D12

How does JT65 improve EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
B	All of these choices are correct
C	It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
D	It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
B	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
C	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
D	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

12. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	220 MHz - 450 MHz
B	10 MHz - 14 MHz
C	28 MHz - 148 MHz
D	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz

13. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Noon
B	Morning
C	Late at night
D	Afternoon or early evening

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class X
C	Class M
D	Class A

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation monitor
B	Network analyzer
C	Logic analyzer
D	Bit error rate tester

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 MHz
B	14.652 Hz
C	1.4652 Hz
D	1.4652 kHz

17. - E4C05

What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
B	The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
C	The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
D	The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature

18. - E4D02

Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
B	Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
C	Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
D	Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

19. - E4E01

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Ignition noise
B	Broadband white noise
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Heterodyne interference

20. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

Select	Answer
A	157.8 Hz
B	315.6 Hz
C	47.3 kHz
D	23.67 kHz

21. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
B	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C	Voltage and current are in phase
D	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

22. - E5C10

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between the resistive and reactive components
B	The sum of the reactive and resistive components
C	Reactive component
D	Resistive component

23. - E5D15

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.866
B	1.0
C	0.5
D	0.707

24. - E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated gate
B	P-type
C	Bipolar
D	N-type

25. - E6B03

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Select	Answer
A	Tunnel
B	Point contact
C	Zener
D	Junction

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
B	Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
C	Logic devices that utilize ternary math
D	Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states

27. - E6D01

How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

Select	Answer
A	79 turns
B	13 turns
C	35 turns
D	141 turns

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
B	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
C	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D	MMICs require no operating bias

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	12 V
B	0.5 V
C	1.5 V
D	0.1 V

30. - E7A01

Which is a bi-stable circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	A clock
C	An "OR" gate
D	An "AND" gate

31. - E7B08

How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing the driving power
B	By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
C	By increasing the driving power
D	By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input

32. - E7C11

Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Select	Answer
A	Pi-L
B	Omega
C	Cascode
D	Pi

33. - E7D02

What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
B	The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
C	It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
D	It gives a ramp voltage at its output

34. - E7E12

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

Select	Answer
A	An automatic band-switching circuit
B	An FM generator circuit
C	A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
D	A circuit for detecting FM signals

35. - E7F08

What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters?

Select	Answer
A	Removing unnecessary significant digits
B	Attenuating the signal
C	Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
D	Converting data to binary code decimal form

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	76
B	1
C	38
D	0.03

37. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

Select	Answer
A	The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
B	The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
C	The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
D	The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output

38. - E8A09

How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolution encode?

Select	Answer
A	8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
B	256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
C	8
D	256

39. - E8B01

What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Quieting index
B	FM compressibility
C	Modulation index
D	Percentage of modulation

40. - E8C04

What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Use of trapezoidal data pulses
B	Zero-sum character encoding
C	Use of sinusoidal data pulses
D	Reed-Solomon character encoding

41. - E8D06

Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?

Select	Answer
A	High reflected power
B	Strong ALC action
C	Rapid signal fading
D	Harmonics on higher bands

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
B	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	25 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	75 degrees
D	7.5 degrees

44. - E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	72 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	450 ohms

45. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the losses
B	To lower the Q
C	To cancel capacitive reactance
D	To increase the SWR bandwidth

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR greater than 1:1
B	An SWR less than 1:1
C	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
D	A dielectric constant greater than 1

47. - E9F05

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 meters
B	0.2 meters
C	2.3 meters
D	20 meters

48. - E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Select	Answer
A	Points with constant resistance
B	Frequency
C	SWR
D	Points with constant reactance

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
B	One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
C	A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
D	A large circularly polarized antenna

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
B	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
C	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
D	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-2