US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-issued amateur license
B	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
C	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
D	Only General class or higher amateur licenses

2. - E1B11

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

Select	Answer
A	At least 63 dB below
B	At least 43 dB below
C	At least 73 dB below
D	At least 53 dB below

3. - E1C11

Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	CEPT agreement
B	ITU reciprocal license
C	All of these choices are correct
D	IARP agreement

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
B	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
C	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
D	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
B	In a question pool maintained by the FCC
C	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
D	In FCC Part 97

6. - E1F09

Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
B	The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
C	All of these choices are correct
D	A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

7. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	An isotropic antenna
B	A circularly polarized antenna
C	A linearly polarized antenna
D	A log-periodic dipole array

8. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

Select	Answer
A	A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
B	No other hardware is needed
C	A special front end limiter
D	A special IF converter

9. - E2C01

Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Select	Answer
A	Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
B	Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
C	Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
D	It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Latitude and longitude
B	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
C	Polar coordinates
D	Time and frequency

11. - E2E05

Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Select	Answer
A	PSK31
B	MFSK
C	Winlink
D	RTTY

12. - E3A05

Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?

Select	Answer
A	Sprites and jets
B	Lightning discharges
C	Warm and cold fronts
D	Gray-line

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Early evening
B	Any time
C	Around sunset
D	Around sunrise

14. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately 15 percent of the distance
B	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
C	By approximately twice the distance
D	By approximately four times the distance

15. - E4A03

Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A logic analyzer
B	A time-domain reflectometer
C	A wattmeter
D	A spectrum analyzer

16. - E4B04

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	14.652 Hz
B	1.4652 kHz
C	1.4652 Hz
D	0.1 MHz

17. - E4C14

What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

Select	Answer
A	14.445 MHz
B	13.845 MHz
C	15.210 MHz
D	14.755 MHz

18. - E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of neutralization
B	Nonlinear circuits or devices
C	Too little gain
D	Positive feedback

19. - E4E11

Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

Select	Answer
A	Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
B	Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
C	The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
D	You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

20. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The voltage and current are in phase
B	The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
C	The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
D	The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The unit used for Q factor
B	The turns ratio of a transformer
C	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
D	The inverse of impedance

22. - E5C15

Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 3
B	Point 7
C	Point 1
D	Point 8

23. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	80 watts
B	2000 watts
C	50 watts
D	400 watts

24. - E6A17

What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter, base, collector
B	Gate, drain, source
C	Emitter, base 1, base 2
D	Gate 1, gate 2, drain

25. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	A negative resistance region
B	An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
C	A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
D	A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	1
C	2
D	4

27. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactivity
B	Permeability
C	Resistance
D	Thermal impedance

28. - E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

Select	Answer
A	2 dB
B	44 dBm
C	-10 dB
D	-20 dBm

29. - E6F14

Which of the following is true of LCD displays?

Select	Answer
A	They may be hard view through polarized lenses
B	They only display alphanumeric symbols
C	All of these choices are correct
D	They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	An XOR gate
B	A flip-flop
C	A multiplexer
D	An OR gate

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Feedback
B	Load resistors
C	Self bias
D	Fixed bias

32. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

Select	Answer
A	A passive op-amp filter
B	A Butterworth filter
C	A Chebyshev filter
D	An active LC filter

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
B	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
C	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
D	It has a ramp voltage as its output

34. - E7E05

What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A heterodyne suppressor
B	A pre-emphasis network
C	A de-emphasis network
D	An audio prescaler

35. - E7F17

What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?

Select	Answer
A	In-phase and Quadrature
B	Inactive and Quiescent
C	Instantaneous and Quenched
D	Instantaneous and Quasi-stable

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	28
B	7
C	14
D	0.07

37. - E7H14

What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

Select	Answer
A	An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
B	An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
C	An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
D	An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By using an absorption wave meter
B	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
C	By using a grid dip meter
D	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
B	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
C	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
D	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
B	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
C	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
D	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

41. - E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

Select	Answer
A	Bit errors in the modem
B	Ground loops
C	Excessive transmit audio levels
D	Excessive numbers of retries

42. - E9A14

What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The specific impedance of the antenna
B	The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
C	The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
D	The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

43. - E9B09

What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual impedance analysis
B	Graphical analysis
C	Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
D	Method of Moments

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	Cardioid
C	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
D	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

45. - E9D11

Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

Select	Answer
A	A wide flat copper strap
B	A resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
C	A single 12 gauge or 10 gauge stainless steel wire
D	A cable with six or seven 18 gauge conductors in parallel

46. - E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
B	To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
C	To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
D	To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

47. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B	The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum

48. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Coaxial-length circles
B	Standing wave ratio circles
C	Antenna-length circles
D	Radiation-pattern circles

49. - E9H07

Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
B	It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
C	It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
D	It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
B	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
C	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
D	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-4