US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
B	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
C	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
D	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

2. - E1B07

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	3.0
B	1.0
C	0.5
D	2.0

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
B	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
C	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
D	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

4. - E1D01

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Select	Answer
A	One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
B	Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
C	Two-way single channel transmissions of data
D	One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

5. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

Select	Answer
A	They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
B	They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
C	They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
D	They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

6. - E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
B	To provide additional spectrum for personal use
C	To provide for experimental amateur communications
D	To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels

7. - E2A14

What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Radar
B	APRS
C	Bandwidth compressed LORAN
D	Doppler shift of beacon signals

8. - E2B19

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted above 54 MHz
B	They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
C	None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
D	They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type

9. - E2C04

What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
B	Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
C	Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
D	Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band

10. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	Olivia
B	PACTOR III
C	FSK441
D	JT65

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
B	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
C	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
D	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

12. - E3A17

What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Select	Answer
A	Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
B	Waves produced by a loop antenna
C	Waves with a rotating electric field
D	Waves that circle the Earth

13. - E3B14

What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	They become elliptically polarized
B	They are bent toward the magnetic poles
C	They become phase-locked
D	Their polarization is randomly modified

14. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Vertical
B	Horizontal
C	Elliptical
D	Circular

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
B	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

16. - E4B13

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S21
B	S22
C	S12
D	S11

17. - E4C12

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired signals may be heard
B	Filter ringing
C	Output-offset overshoot
D	Thermal-noise distortion

18. - E4D07

Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
B	The desired signal can no longer be heard
C	A reduction in apparent signal strength
D	A large increase in background noise

19. - E4E12

What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

Select	Answer
A	A DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
B	Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
C	Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
D	Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal

20. - E5A15

Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Lower losses
B	Higher self-resonant frequency
C	Lower reactance
D	Lower self-resonant frequency

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The turns ratio of a transformer
B	The unit used for Q factor
C	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
D	The inverse of impedance

22. - E5C03

Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	A negative phase angle
B	A positive real part
C	A negative real part
D	A positive phase angle

23. - E5D16

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.577
B	0.5
C	0.866
D	1.73

24. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptor impurity
B	Insulator impurity
C	N-type impurity
D	Donor impurity

25. - E6B09

What is a common use for point contact diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As an RF detector
B	As a constant voltage source
C	As a high voltage rectifier
D	As a constant current source

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	High speed operation
B	More efficient arithmetic operations
C	Low power consumption
D	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus

27. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The skin effect
B	Non-linear core hysteresis
C	Inter-turn capacitance
D	Inductive kickback

28. - E6E01

Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Select	Answer
A	It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
B	It is used in a battery charger circuit
C	It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
D	Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency

29. - E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 V
B	0.5 V
C	12 V
D	1.5 V

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
C	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Load resistors
B	Fixed bias
C	Self bias
D	Feedback

32. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
B	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
C	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
D	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band

33. - E7D12

What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
B	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
C	Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
D	Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load

34. - E7E10

How does a diode detector function?

Select	Answer
A	By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
B	By breakdown of the Zener voltage
C	By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
D	By rectification and filtering of RF signals

35. - E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

Select	Answer
A	More taps
B	Double-precision math routines
C	Higher data rate
D	Complex phasor representations

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	76
B	0.03
C	38
D	1

37. - E7H02

Which describes a microphonic?

Select	Answer
A	An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
B	Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
C	Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
D	Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration

38. - E8A03

What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?

Select	Answer
A	A cosine wave
B	A square wave
C	A sawtooth wave
D	A sine wave

39. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

Select	Answer
A	1000
B	0.3
C	3
D	3000

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

Select	Answer
A	Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
B	Binary Coded Decimal Code
C	Excess 3 code
D	Gray code

41. - E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

Select	Answer
A	It includes built in error correction features
B	It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
C	It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
D	It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text

42. - E9A08

What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The angle between the half-power radiation points
B	Antenna length divided by the number of elements
C	The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
D	The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

43. - E9B12

What is the far field of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
B	The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
C	The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
D	The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period

44. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

Select	Answer
A	Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
B	The low-angle radiation decreases
C	The high-angle radiation increases
D	The low-angle radiation increases

45. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the losses
B	To increase the SWR bandwidth
C	To lower the Q
D	To cancel capacitive reactance

46. - E9E05

How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
B	The driven element reactance must be inductive
C	The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
D	The driven element reactance must be capacitive

47. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	6.9 meters
B	24 meters
C	10 meters
D	50 meters

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance along transmission lines
B	Radio propagation
C	Radiation resistance
D	Antenna radiation pattern

49. - E9H04

What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
B	It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
C	It is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
D	It automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
B	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-4