US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - E1A01

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	1 kHz below the upper band edge
B	The exact upper band edge
C	300 Hz below the upper band edge
D	3 kHz below the upper band edge

2. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
B	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
C	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
D	The amateur station must cease operation

3. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Select	Answer
A	Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
B	Under local control there is no control operator
C	Under automatic control there is no control operator
D	Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

4. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
B	Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

5. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

Select	Answer
A	They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
B	They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
C	They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
D	They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications that have a religious content
B	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
C	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
D	Communications in a language other than English

7. - E2A04

What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

Select	Answer
A	The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
B	The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
C	The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
D	Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

8. - E2B16

Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

Select	Answer
A	Scottie
B	PAL
C	DRM
D	NTSC

9. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

Select	Answer
A	In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
B	In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
C	In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
D	At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Latitude and longitude
B	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
C	Polar coordinates
D	Time and frequency

11. - E2E05

Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK
B	PSK31
C	Winlink
D	RTTY

12. - E3A08

When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

Select	Answer
A	The D layer
B	The F2 layer
C	The E layer
D	The F1 layer

13. - E3B05

Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters to 10 meters
B	30 meters to 10 meters
C	160 meters to 40 meters
D	6 meters to 2 meters

14. - E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

Select	Answer
A	VHF radio propagation
B	AC voltage and impedance
C	AC current and impedance
D	HF propagation

15. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

Select	Answer
A	SWR and time
B	RF amplitude and frequency
C	SWR and frequency
D	RF amplitude and time

16. - E4B13

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S11
B	S21
C	S22
D	S12

17. - E4C10

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

Select	Answer
A	300 Hz
B	100 Hz
C	2400 Hz
D	6000 Hz

18. - E4D06

What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Select	Answer
A	Amplifier desensitization
B	Adjacent channel interference
C	Intermodulation interference
D	Neutralization

19. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
B	FM signals can no longer be demodulated
C	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
D	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	23.5 MHz
B	7.12 kHz
C	23.5 kHz
D	7.12 MHz

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	X
C	G
D	B

22. - E5C14

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 4
B	Point 2
C	Point 5
D	Point 6

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	141.4 Watts
B	100 Watts
C	200 Watts
D	70.7 Watts

24. - E6A07

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Select	Answer
A	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
B	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts
D	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	Forward DC bias current
B	A sub-harmonic pump signal
C	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
D	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal

26. - E6C12

What is BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
B	A FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
C	An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
D	A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package

27. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive kickback
B	Inter-turn capacitance
C	The skin effect
D	Non-linear core hysteresis

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
B	MMICs require no operating bias
C	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

29. - E6F14

Which of the following is true of LCD displays?

Select	Answer
A	They may be hard view through polarized lenses
B	All of these choices are correct
C	They only display alphanumeric symbols
D	They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions

30. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Positive Logic
B	Assertive Logic
C	Negative logic
D	Reverse Logic

31. - E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter load
B	Collector load
C	Voltage regulation
D	Fixed bias

32. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
B	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
C	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
D	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

33. - E7D03

What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	A tunnel diode
B	A varactor diode
C	An SCR
D	A Zener diode

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
B	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
C	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
D	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

35. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

Select	Answer
A	At twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
B	At half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
C	At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
D	At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	1000 ohms
C	Very high
D	100 ohms

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a tapped coil
B	Through a quartz crystal
C	Through link coupling
D	Through a neutralizing capacitor

38. - E8A12

What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Select	Answer
A	Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
B	Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection

39. - E8B09

What is meant by deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
C	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 Hz
B	1.0 kHz
C	0.5 kHz
D	0.3 kHz

41. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

Select	Answer
A	A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
B	The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
C	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
D	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
B	To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
C	To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
D	To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

43. - E9B09

What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Graphical analysis
B	Method of Moments
C	Mutual impedance analysis
D	Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

44. - E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

Select	Answer
A	The high-angle radiation increases
B	The low-angle radiation increases
C	Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
D	The low-angle radiation decreases

45. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the losses
B	To lower the Q
C	To increase the SWR bandwidth
D	To cancel capacitive reactance

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Velocity factor
B	Reflection coefficient
C	Dielectric constant
D	Characteristic impedance

47. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	A capacitive reactance
C	The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
D	An inductive reactance

48. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
B	Beam headings and radiation patterns
C	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
D	Trigonometric functions

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
B	It receives equally well in all directions
C	It has a bidirectional pattern
D	It is non-rotatable

50. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
B	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
C	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
D	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits

Figure E5-2

Figure E7-2