US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
C	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
D	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
B	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

3. - E1C13

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

Select	Answer
A	You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
B	You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
C	The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
D	You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

4. - E1D02

What is the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B	A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
C	A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
D	A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites

5. - E1E02

Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

Select	Answer
A	In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
B	In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
C	In FCC Part 97
D	In a question pool maintained by the FCC

6. - E1F12

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Any licensed amateur operator
D	Only Amateur Extra Class operators

7. - E2A03

What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

Select	Answer
A	The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
B	The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
C	The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
D	The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth

8. - E2B10

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	10 KHz
B	20 KHz
C	3 KHz
D	15 KHz

9. - E2C13

What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

Select	Answer
A	The ARRL section of the remote station
B	/R# where # is the district of the remote station
C	/ followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
D	No additional indicator is required

10. - E2D05

Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Select	Answer
A	Store-and-forward
B	Node hopping
C	Multi-satellite relaying
D	Digipeating

11. - E2E06

What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

Select	Answer
A	48 baud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	110 baud

12. - E3A04

What do Hepburn maps predict?

Select	Answer
A	Likelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts
B	Locations of auroral reflecting zones
C	Probability of tropospheric propagation
D	Sporadic E propagation

13. - E3B09

At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
B	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
D	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice

14. - E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

Select	Answer
A	Westward
B	Southward
C	Northward
D	Eastward

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Match the antenna to the load
B	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
C	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

Select	Answer
A	The port or ports at which measurements are made
B	The relative time between measurements
C	Frequency order of the measurements
D	Relative quality of the data

17. - E4C02

Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

Select	Answer
A	A front-end filter or pre-selector
B	A narrow IF filter
C	A properly adjusted product detector
D	A notch filter

18. - E4D02

Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Select	Answer
A	Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
B	Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
C	Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
D	Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

19. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
B	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
C	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
D	FM signals can no longer be demodulated

20. - E5A12

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

Select	Answer
A	15.7 kHz
B	31.4 kHz
C	218.3 kHz
D	436.6 kHz

21. - E5B13

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	G
B	Y
C	B
D	X

22. - E5C04

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	A negative real part
B	A positive real part
C	A negative phase angle
D	A positive phase angle

23. - E5D07

What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?

Select	Answer
A	The diameter of the conductor
B	The amount of current flowing through the conductor
C	The resistance divided by the current
D	The ratio of the current to the resistance

24. - E6A11

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	2
C	1
D	6

25. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
B	A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
C	An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
D	A negative resistance region

26. - E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

Select	Answer
A	A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
B	A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
C	A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
D	A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false

27. - E6D14

Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

Select	Answer
A	Powdered-iron
B	Brass
C	Ceramic
D	Ferrite

28. - E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

Select	Answer
A	2 dB
B	-10 dB
C	-20 dBm
D	44 dBm

29. - E6F08

Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120VAC?

Select	Answer
A	Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
B	Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
C	Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
D	Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched

30. - E7A11

What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Positive Logic
B	Negative logic
C	Reverse Logic
D	Assertive Logic

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Self bias
B	Load resistors
C	Fixed bias
D	Feedback

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a band-pass filter
B	It is a high-pass filter
C	It is a notch filter
D	It is a low-pass filter

33. - E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	It bypasses hum around D1
B	To self-resonate at the hum frequency
C	To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
D	It is a brute force filter for the output

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
B	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
C	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
D	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer

35. - E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

Select	Answer
A	Higher data rate
B	Complex phasor representations
C	Double-precision math routines
D	More taps

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	76
C	0.03
D	38

37. - E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through a quartz crystal
B	Through a tapped coil
C	Through a neutralizing capacitor
D	Through link coupling

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The characteristics of the modulating signal
B	The amplifier gain
C	The frequency of the modulating signal
D	The degree of carrier suppression

39. - E8B09

What is meant by deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
C	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	Baud is only used for RTTY
B	They are the same
C	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
D	Baud is twice the symbol rate

41. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
B	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
C	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
D	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code

42. - E9A03

Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
B	To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
C	To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
D	To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

43. - E9B13

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Select	Answer
A	National Electrical Code
B	Numeric Electrical Computation
C	Numerical Electromagnetic Code
D	Next Element Comparison

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	Omni-directional
B	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
C	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D06

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

Select	Answer
A	No change occurs
B	It is decreased
C	It becomes flat
D	It is increased

46. - E9E09

Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Double-bazooka match
B	Gamma match
C	Hairpin match
D	All of these choices are correct

47. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	The same as the input impedance to the generator
C	Very high impedance
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
B	Trigonometric functions
C	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
D	Beam headings and radiation patterns

49. - E9H11

What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	High-radiation angle
B	A very sharp peak
C	A very sharp single null
D	Broad band response

50. - E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Select	Answer
A	Only the most powerful transmitter
B	Only commercial transmitters
C	Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent
D	Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-3

Figure E7-4