US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A03

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Select	Answer
A	No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge
B	Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
C	No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
D	Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
B	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
D	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

3. - E1C13

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

Select	Answer
A	You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
B	The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
C	You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
D	You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

4. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	2 meters and 1.25 meters
B	6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
C	2 meters
D	6 meters and 2 meters

5. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
B	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
C	All these choices are correct
D	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

7. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

Select	Answer
A	SSB and SSTV
B	PSK and Packet
C	FM and CW
D	All of these choices are correct

8. - E2B13

How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

Select	Answer
A	128 or 256
B	180 or 360
C	60 or 100
D	30 or 60

9. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
B	A standard wireless router running custom software
C	A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem
D	A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem

10. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	Olivia
B	FSK441
C	JT65
D	PACTOR III

11. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR
B	AMTOR
C	RTTY
D	Hellschreiber

12. - E3A01

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
B	2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
C	5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
D	500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

13. - E3B11

At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around sunset
B	Around sunrise
C	Any time
D	Early evening

14. - E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

Select	Answer
A	Duration of long-delayed echoes
B	Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
C	Geomagnetic field stability
D	Critical frequency for vertical transmissions

15. - E4A12

Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	Match the antenna to the load
B	Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer

16. - E4B16

Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?

Select	Answer
A	S22
B	S12
C	S11
D	S21

17. - E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum detectable spectrum
B	The multiplex distortion stability
C	The minimum discernible signal
D	The meter display sensitivity

18. - E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Nonlinear circuits or devices
B	Positive feedback
C	Lack of neutralization
D	Too little gain

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	Broadband white noise
B	Power line noise
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Ignition noise

20. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Internal voltages and circulating currents increase
B	Phase shift can become uncontrolled
C	Parasitic effects are minimized
D	Fewer components are needed for the same performance

21. - E5B02

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

Select	Answer
A	An exponential discharge rate of one
B	One discharge period
C	A discharge factor of one
D	One time constant

22. - E5C16

Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 8
B	Point 1
C	Point 7
D	Point 3

23. - E5D08

What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Select	Answer
A	Kinetic energy
B	Thermodynamic energy
C	Electromechanical energy
D	Potential energy

24. - E6A10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	2
B	5
C	4
D	6

25. - E6B08

Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Select	Answer
A	Electrolytic rectifier
B	Thermionic emission diode
C	Metal-semiconductor junction
D	CMOS-field effect

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High speed operation
C	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
D	More efficient arithmetic operations

27. - E6D17

Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
B	Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
C	Harmonics and distortion could result
D	RF susceptance would increase

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
B	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
C	MMICs require no operating bias
D	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	A liquid semiconductor
B	A heavy metal
C	An ordinary metal
D	A crystalline semiconductor

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
D	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"

31. - E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Select	Answer
A	Fixed bias
B	Load resistors
C	Feedback
D	Self bias

32. - E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
B	It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
C	It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
D	It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value

33. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

Select	Answer
A	To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
B	To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
C	To allow for remote control of the power supply
D	To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications

34. - E7E11

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase detector
B	Product detector
C	Discriminator
D	Phase comparator

35. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

Select	Answer
A	6 bits
B	10 bits
C	4 bits
D	8 bits

36. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	28
B	14
C	0.07
D	7

37. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce, Fenner and Beane
B	Taft, Hartley and Pierce
C	Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
D	Taft, Pierce and negative feedback

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The amplifier gain
B	The characteristics of the modulating signal
C	The degree of carrier suppression
D	The frequency of the modulating signal

39. - E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

Select	Answer
A	0.6
B	60
C	0.167
D	1.67

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

Select	Answer
A	Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
B	Gray code
C	Binary Coded Decimal Code
D	Excess 3 code

41. - E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

Select	Answer
A	Low-pass filters at the transmitter output
B	Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
C	High-pass filters at the transmitter output
D	Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
D	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent

43. - E9B14

What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
C	Antenna gain
D	SWR vs frequency charts

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
B	A type of ground-plane antenna
C	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
D	A dipole configured to provide forward gain

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
B	It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
C	It must be neutralized
D	It might radiate harmonics

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The stub match
B	The delta match
C	The epsilon match
D	The gamma match

47. - E9F14

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	Very high impedance
C	The same as the output impedance of the generator
D	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

48. - E9G05

What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Select	Answer
A	Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
B	Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
C	Smith chart
D	Free space radiation directivity chart

49. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
B	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
C	By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
D	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

50. - E0A10

What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

Select	Answer
A	Polychlorinated Biphenyls
B	Polytetrafluroethylene
C	Polymorphic silicon
D	Polyethylene

Figure E5-2

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-3