US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

Select	Answer
A	Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B	Only General class or higher amateur licenses
C	Any FCC-issued amateur license
D	An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

2. - E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

Select	Answer
A	You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
B	No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
C	You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
D	You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules

3. - E1C09

Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
B	24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz
C	10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz
D	29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
B	All except Technician Class
C	Only Amateur Extra Class
D	Any class with appropriate operator privileges

5. - E1E13

Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

Select	Answer
A	The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
B	Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
C	Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed
D	Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team

6. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

7. - E2A08

Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
B	To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
C	To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
D	To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

8. - E2B12

How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
B	Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
C	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
D	Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK

9. - E2C04

What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
B	Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
C	Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
D	Store and forward on the 440 MHz band

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Polar coordinates
B	Time and frequency
C	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
D	Latitude and longitude

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
B	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
C	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
D	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response

12. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

Select	Answer
A	100 miles to 300 miles
B	10 miles to 50 miles
C	2500 miles
D	1200 miles

13. - E3B12

What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
B	Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
C	Successive ionospheric reflections without an intermediate reflection from the ground
D	Propagation across the geomagnetic equator

14. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Horizontal
B	Vertical
C	Circular
D	Elliptical

15. - E4A13

How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

Select	Answer
A	A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
B	A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
C	A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
D	A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

16. - E4B03

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	146.52 Hz
B	1.4652 MHz
C	165.2 Hz
D	14.652 kHz

17. - E4C11

Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

Select	Answer
A	4.2 kHz
B	1 kHz
C	4.8 kHz
D	2.4 kHz

18. - E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
B	146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C	146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
D	173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz

19. - E4E11

Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

Select	Answer
A	Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
B	The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
C	Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
D	You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

20. - E5A16

What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

Select	Answer
A	7.12 MHz
B	7.12 kHz
C	23.5 kHz
D	23.5 MHz

21. - E5B01

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

Select	Answer
A	One time constant
B	One exponential period
C	A time factor of one
D	An exponential rate of one

22. - E5C05

What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Near field diagram
B	Phasor diagram
C	Far field diagram
D	Venn diagram

23. - E5D08

What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Select	Answer
A	Kinetic energy
B	Thermodynamic energy
C	Electromechanical energy
D	Potential energy

24. - E6A10

In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	2
C	5
D	6

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
B	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
C	A sub-harmonic pump signal
D	Forward DC bias current

26. - E6C04

What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	High speed operation
B	More efficient arithmetic operations
C	Low power consumption
D	Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus

27. - E6D11

How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

Select	Answer
A	4 turns
B	43 turns
C	2 turns
D	229 turns

28. - E6E01

Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Select	Answer
A	It is used in a battery charger circuit
B	It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
C	Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
D	It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Cadmium Sulfide
B	Silicon
C	Selenium
D	Copper oxide

30. - E7A05

Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Select	Answer
A	T flip-flop
B	Astable multivibrator
C	Monostable multivibrator
D	J-K flip-flop

31. - E7B12

What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Select	Answer
A	Common collector
B	Common emitter
C	Common base
D	Emitter follower

32. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
B	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
C	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
D	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

33. - E7D09

What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

Select	Answer
A	Matching of day and night charge rates
B	Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
C	Prevention of battery undercharge
D	Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge

34. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
B	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
C	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
D	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

35. - E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

Select	Answer
A	At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
B	At half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
C	At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
D	At twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

36. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Restrict gain but increase Q
B	Restrict Q but increase gain
C	Restrict both gain and Q
D	Increase both gain and Q

37. - E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

Select	Answer
A	The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
B	The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
C	The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
D	The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output

38. - E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The amplifier gain
B	The characteristics of the modulating signal
C	The degree of carrier suppression
D	The frequency of the modulating signal

39. - E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

Select	Answer
A	It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B	It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
C	It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
D	It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

40. - E8C09

Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?

Select	Answer
A	Excess 3 code
B	Binary Coded Decimal Code
C	Gray code
D	Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

41. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

Select	Answer
A	Limits data speed
B	More difficult to copy
C	The generation of RF harmonics
D	The generation of key clicks

42. - E9A15

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	286 watts
B	1977 watts
C	420 watts
D	78.7 watts

43. - E9B13

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Select	Answer
A	Numerical Electromagnetic Code
B	National Electrical Code
C	Numeric Electrical Computation
D	Next Element Comparison

44. - E9C12

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A portable antenna erected using two push support poles
B	A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
C	A center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in phase)
D	An end fed folded dipole antenna

45. - E9D06

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

Select	Answer
A	It is increased
B	It becomes flat
C	No change occurs
D	It is decreased

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	A dielectric constant greater than 1
B	An SWR greater than 1:1
C	A reflection coefficient greater than 1
D	An SWR less than 1:1

47. - E9F07

How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Lower velocity factor
B	Lower loss
C	Higher SWR
D	Smaller reflection coefficient

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Radio propagation
B	Impedance along transmission lines
C	Antenna radiation pattern
D	Radiation resistance

49. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
D	Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance

50. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
B	Lightning protection
C	Reduce received noise
D	Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems

Figure E6-2

Figure E7-1