US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A01

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

Select	Answer
A	300 Hz below the upper band edge
B	1 kHz below the upper band edge
C	3 kHz below the upper band edge
D	The exact upper band edge

2. - E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

Select	Answer
A	Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
B	Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
C	Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D	Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
B	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
C	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
D	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

4. - E1D05

What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

Select	Answer
A	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
B	Any class with appropriate operator privileges
C	All except Technician Class
D	Only Amateur Extra Class

5. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

Select	Answer
A	A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
B	An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
C	The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
D	A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

6. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

Select	Answer
A	The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
B	None, they must obtain a U.S. license
C	All privileges of the Extra Class license
D	Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands

7. - E2A06

On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

Select	Answer
A	435 MHz - 438 MHz
B	50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
C	29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
D	144 MHz - 146 MHz

8. - E2B16

Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

Select	Answer
A	PAL
B	Scottie
C	NTSC
D	DRM

9. - E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

Select	Answer
A	30 m
B	2 m
C	33 cm
D	6 m

10. - E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

Select	Answer
A	FSK441
B	Olivia
C	PACTOR III
D	JT65

11. - E2E07

What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

Select	Answer
A	2.16 kHz
B	316 Hz
C	550 Hz
D	31 Hz

12. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

Select	Answer
A	Bodies of water
B	Mountain ranges
C	Urban areas
D	Forests

13. - E3B09

At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
B	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
D	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice

14. - E3C13

What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Circular
B	Horizontal
C	Vertical
D	Elliptical

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
D	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source

16. - E4B05

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	146.52 Hz
B	146.52 kHz
C	10 Hz
D	1465.20 Hz

17. - E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces receiver sensitivity
B	It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
C	It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
D	It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals

18. - E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

Select	Answer
A	The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
B	The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
C	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
D	The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression

19. - E4E02

Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Power line noise
C	Ignition noise
D	Broadband white noise

20. - E5A12

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

Select	Answer
A	15.7 kHz
B	218.3 kHz
C	436.6 kHz
D	31.4 kHz

21. - E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	220 seconds
B	110 seconds
C	440 seconds
D	55 seconds

22. - E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	By phase angle and amplitude
B	By Y and G values
C	By X and R values
D	By real and imaginary parts

23. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

Select	Answer
A	Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
B	Power consumed in circuit Q
C	Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D	Wattless, nonproductive power

24. - E6A07

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Select	Answer
A	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
B	Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts
D	Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts

25. - E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
B	Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
C	Forward DC bias current
D	A sub-harmonic pump signal

26. - E6C10

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	1
C	2
D	3

27. - E6D16

What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to absorb transient voltage spikes?

Select	Answer
A	Snubber capacitor
B	Trimmer capacitor
C	Feedback capacitor
D	Clipper capacitor

28. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

Select	Answer
A	Surface mount
B	TO-220
C	Radial lead
D	Axial lead

29. - E6F01

What is photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
B	The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
C	The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
D	The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy

30. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

Select	Answer
A	A flip-flop
B	An XOR gate
C	An OR gate
D	A multiplexer

31. - E7B03

Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
B	A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
C	A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
D	A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies

32. - E7C09

What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?

Select	Answer
A	An automatic notch filter
B	A filter that removes impulse noise E7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter
C	A special filter that emphasizes image responses
D	A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter

33. - E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

Select	Answer
A	To self-resonate at the hum frequency
B	It is a brute force filter for the output
C	To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
D	It bypasses hum around D1

34. - E7E04

What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
B	By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
C	By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
D	By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter

35. - E7F07

What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?

Select	Answer
A	Converting digital signals to analog form
B	Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data
C	Converting analog signals to digital form
D	Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain

36. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

Select	Answer
A	2.3 volts
B	0.23 volts
C	-0.23 volts
D	-2.3 volts

37. - E7H15

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Select	Answer
A	Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
B	Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
C	Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
D	Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter

38. - E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	25 to 1
B	2.5 to 1
C	1 to 1
D	100 to 1

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
B	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
C	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
D	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

40. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
B	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
C	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
D	Special binary codes provide automatic correction

41. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

Select	Answer
A	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
B	The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
C	A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
D	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

42. - E9A09

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

Select	Answer
A	(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
B	(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent
C	(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
D	(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent

43. - E9B09

What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual impedance analysis
B	Graphical analysis
C	Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
D	Method of Moments

44. - E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
B	A dipole constructed from zip cord
C	A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
D	An end fed dipole antenna

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be neutralized
B	It might radiate harmonics
C	It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
D	It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well

46. - E9E09

Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hairpin match
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Double-bazooka match
D	Gamma match

47. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
B	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
C	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
D	The index of shielding for coaxial cable

48. - E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Select	Answer
A	Prime axis
B	Reactance axis
C	Impedance axis
D	Polar axis

49. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It is non-rotatable
B	It has a bidirectional pattern
C	It is practical for use only on VHF bands
D	It receives equally well in all directions

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
B	Signal Amplification Rating
C	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
D	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-3

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-3