US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - E1A06

Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
B	At the highest frequency of the channel
C	At the lowest frequency of the channel
D	At the center frequency of the channel

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
B	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
D	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC

3. - E1C07

What is meant by local control?

Select	Answer
A	Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
B	Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
C	Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
D	Automatically manipulating local station controls

4. - E1D03

What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

Select	Answer
A	An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere
B	An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
C	An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
D	An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

5. - E1E14

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Select	Answer
A	Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
B	Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
C	Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
D	No expenses are authorized for reimbursement

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When transmitting international third-party communications
B	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
C	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
D	When the total money involved does not exceed $25

7. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

Select	Answer
A	SSB and SSTV
B	FM and CW
C	All of these choices are correct
D	PSK and Packet

8. - E2B17

What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	6 MHz
C	600 Hz
D	2 MHz

9. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

Select	Answer
A	Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
B	Send your full call sign once or twice
C	Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
D	Send your full call sign and grid square

10. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Select	Answer
A	Time and frequency
B	Latitude and longitude
C	Polar coordinates
D	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis

11. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

Select	Answer
A	Final Error Correction
B	First Error Correction
C	Forward Error Correction
D	Fatal Error Correction

12. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

Select	Answer
A	Mountain ranges
B	Urban areas
C	Forests
D	Bodies of water

13. - E3B07

Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

Select	Answer
A	Receipt of a signal by more than one path
B	Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
C	High D layer absorption
D	Meteor scatter

14. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	Moderate solar wind
B	Very low solar activity
C	Waning sunspot numbers
D	An extreme geomagnetic storm

15. - E4A14

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	It amplifies low level signals for more accurate counting
B	It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
C	It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
D	It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit

16. - E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	Time base accuracy
B	Decade divider accuracy
C	Temperature coefficient of the logic
D	Input attenuator accuracy

17. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	-174 dBm
B	-155 dBm
C	-148 dBm
D	-164 dBm

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
B	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
C	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
D	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

19. - E4E15

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

Select	Answer
A	Common mode currents on the shield and conductors
B	Use of braided shielding material
C	Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield
D	Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield

20. - E5A15

Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Higher self-resonant frequency
B	Lower losses
C	Lower self-resonant frequency
D	Lower reactance

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The inverse of impedance
B	The turns ratio of a transformer
C	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
D	The unit used for Q factor

22. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
B	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
C	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
D	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance

23. - E5D01

What is the result of skin effect?

Select	Answer
A	Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
B	As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
C	As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
D	Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance

24. - E6A13

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Common Mode Organic Silicon
B	Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
C	Common Mode Oscillating System
D	Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon

25. - E6B12

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

Select	Answer
A	As an RF switch
B	As a constant voltage source
C	As a high voltage rectifier
D	As a constant current source

26. - E6C08

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	1
C	4
D	2

27. - E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
B	Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
C	Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
D	Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

28. - E6E08

How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Select	Answer
A	MMICs require no operating bias
B	Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
C	Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
D	Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Copper oxide
B	Silicon
C	Cadmium Sulfide
D	Selenium

30. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	2
C	8
D	1

31. - E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Select	Answer
A	Fixed bias
B	Collector load
C	Voltage regulation
D	Emitter load

32. - E7C15

What is a crystal lattice filter?

Select	Answer
A	An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1kHz intervals
B	A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
C	A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
D	A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals

33. - E7D12

What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
B	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
C	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
D	Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load

34. - E7E12

What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

Select	Answer
A	An automatic band-switching circuit
B	An FM generator circuit
C	A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
D	A circuit for detecting FM signals

35. - E7F03

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

Select	Answer
A	An adaptive filter
B	A notch filter
C	An elliptical filter
D	A Hilbert-transform filter

36. - E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Restrict both gain and Q
B	Restrict gain but increase Q
C	Restrict Q but increase gain
D	Increase both gain and Q

37. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Select	Answer
A	Armstrong and deForest
B	Negative feedback and balanced feedback
C	Colpitts and Hartley
D	Pierce and Zener

38. - E8A10

What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
C	Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
D	Improve accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input

39. - E8B09

What is meant by deviation ratio?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
B	The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
C	The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
D	The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency

40. - E8C01

How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
B	By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
C	By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
D	By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
B	Foreign language characters can be sent
C	Faster transmission rate
D	The signal can overpower interfering signals

42. - E9A02

What antenna has no gain in any direction?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave dipole
B	Yagi
C	Isotropic antenna
D	Quarter-wave vertical

43. - E9B08

How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Select	Answer
A	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
B	Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
C	Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
D	Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference

44. - E9C01

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

Select	Answer
A	A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
B	A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
C	Omni-directional
D	Cardioid

45. - E9D11

Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

Select	Answer
A	A cable with six or seven 18 gauge conductors in parallel
B	A wide flat copper strap
C	A single 12 gauge or 10 gauge stainless steel wire
D	A resistive wire, such as spark plug wire

46. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

Select	Answer
A	The omega match
B	The delta match
C	The gamma match
D	The stub match

47. - E9F15

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B	The same as the output impedance of the generator
C	Very high impedance
D	Very low impedance

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance circles and reactance arcs
B	Voltage circles and current arcs
C	Voltage lines and current chords
D	Resistance lines and reactance chords

49. - E9H09

Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

Select	Answer
A	One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
B	A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
C	A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
D	A large circularly polarized antenna

50. - E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

Select	Answer
A	E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
B	Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
C	The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
D	All of these choices are correct

Figure E6-5

Figure E7-2