US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A05

What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
B	100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
C	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
D	50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

2. - E1B02

Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

Select	Answer
A	The location is in an ITU Zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
B	The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
C	The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
D	The location is near an area of political conflict

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	A control operator need not be present at the control point
B	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
C	A control operator must be present at the control point
D	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

4. - E1D01

What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Select	Answer
A	Two-way single channel transmissions of data
B	Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
C	One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
D	One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument

5. - E1E01

What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	3
C	2
D	5

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When transmitting international third-party communications
B	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
C	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
D	When the total money involved does not exceed $25

7. - E2A03

What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

Select	Answer
A	The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
B	The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
C	The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
D	The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

8. - E2B16

Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

Select	Answer
A	Scottie
B	NTSC
C	PAL
D	DRM

9. - E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

Select	Answer
A	The most common set of contest rules
B	A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
C	A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
D	The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

10. - E2D09

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
B	PSK31
C	AMTOR
D	300 baud packet

11. - E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	MT63
B	PACTOR
C	RTTY
D	PSK31

12. - E3A16

Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Select	Answer
A	Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
B	Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
C	The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
D	The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index

13. - E3B10

What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

Select	Answer
A	At mid-afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
B	At midday, the Sun super heats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
C	In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
D	At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption is low while E-layer and F-layer propagation remains high

14. - E3C08

What does the space weather term G5 mean?

Select	Answer
A	Waning sunspot numbers
B	Very low solar activity
C	An extreme geomagnetic storm
D	Moderate solar wind

15. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation monitor
B	Logic analyzer
C	Bit error rate tester
D	Network analyzer

16. - E4B05

If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

Select	Answer
A	1465.20 Hz
B	146.52 kHz
C	146.52 Hz
D	10 Hz

17. - E4C13

How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
B	It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
C	It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
D	All of these choices are correct

18. - E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Select	Answer
A	A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
B	The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
C	Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
D	A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

19. - E4E07

How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

Select	Answer
A	By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
B	By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C	By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
D	By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer

20. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
B	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
C	Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
D	Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is unchanged
B	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance
C	The sign is reversed
D	It is shifted by 90 degrees

22. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

Select	Answer
A	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
B	50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
C	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
D	25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance

23. - E5D16

What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	0.5
B	1.73
C	0.577
D	0.866

24. - E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Select	Answer
A	Donor impurity
B	Acceptor impurity
C	N-type impurity
D	Insulator impurity

25. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
B	A negative resistance region
C	A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
D	A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage

26. - E6C14

What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Many similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types
B	All of these choices are correct
C	Complex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit
D	A PGA contains its own internal power supply

27. - E6D12

What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
B	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
C	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
D	The inductor windings are over coupled

28. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
B	Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
C	Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
D	Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon
B	Selenium
C	Cadmium Sulfide
D	Copper oxide

30. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
B	It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
C	It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
D	It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B13

In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Select	Answer
A	Emitter load
B	Fixed bias
C	Voltage regulation
D	Collector load

32. - E7C06

What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
B	Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
C	Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
D	Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band

33. - E7D01

What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
B	It has a ramp voltage as its output
C	The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
D	It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

34. - E7E07

What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
B	The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
C	The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
D	The frequency components present in the modulating signal

35. - E7F12

What digital process is applied to I and Q signals in order to recover the baseband modulation information?

Select	Answer
A	Fast Fourier Transform
B	Decimation
C	Quadrature mixing
D	Signal conditioning

36. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

Select	Answer
A	-2.3 volts
B	0.23 volts
C	-0.23 volts
D	2.3 volts

37. - E7H12

Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Select	Answer
A	Bias the crystal at a specified current
B	Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
C	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
D	Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance

38. - E8A11

What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Select	Answer
A	Human speech
B	Video signals
C	Data
D	All of these choices are correct

39. - E8B10

What describes frequency division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
B	Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
C	Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
D	The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

40. - E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

Select	Answer
A	They are the same
B	Baud is twice the symbol rate
C	Baud is only used for RTTY
D	Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes

41. - E8D12

What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Select	Answer
A	The signal can overpower interfering signals
B	Faster transmission rate
C	Foreign language characters can be sent
D	Some types of errors can be detected SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization E9A01 (C) What describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

42. - E9A14

What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
B	The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
C	The specific impedance of the antenna
D	The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

43. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?

Select	Answer
A	50 degrees
B	25 degrees
C	75 degrees
D	30 degrees

44. - E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
B	A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
C	A type of ground-plane antenna
D	A dipole configured to provide forward gain

45. - E9D05

What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It must be neutralized
B	It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
C	It might radiate harmonics
D	It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well

46. - E9E02

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

Select	Answer
A	The epsilon match
B	The gamma match
C	The stub match
D	The delta match

47. - E9F15

What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	Very low impedance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	The same as the output impedance of the generator
D	Very high impedance

48. - E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage circles and current arcs
B	Resistance circles and reactance arcs
C	Voltage lines and current chords
D	Resistance lines and reactance chords

49. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

Select	Answer
A	All of these choices are correct
B	Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
C	Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
D	They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity

50. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce received noise
B	Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
C	Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
D	Lightning protection

Figure E7-2

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-1