US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A13

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Select	Answer
A	Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
B	Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
C	Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
D	Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

2. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

Select	Answer
A	An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
B	A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C	A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
D	A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

3. - E1C04

What is meant by IARP?

Select	Answer
A	The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
B	An indication of increased antenna reflected power
C	A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
D	An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas

4. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	2 meters
B	2 meters and 1.25 meters
C	6 meters and 2 meters
D	6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

5. - E1E01

What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

Select	Answer
A	4
B	2
C	3
D	5

6. - E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	Communications in a language other than English
B	Communications that have a religious content
C	Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
D	Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

7. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	A circularly polarized antenna
B	A linearly polarized antenna
C	A log-periodic dipole array
D	An isotropic antenna

8. - E2B14

What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

Select	Answer
A	Sync amplitude
B	Tone frequency
C	Sync frequency
D	Tone amplitude

9. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

Select	Answer
A	Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
B	Send your full call sign once or twice
C	Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
D	Send your full call sign and grid square

10. - E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

Select	Answer
A	AX.25
B	802.11
C	AMTOR
D	PACTOR

11. - E2E07

What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

Select	Answer
A	550 Hz
B	31 Hz
C	2.16 kHz
D	316 Hz

12. - E3A15

What is an electromagnetic wave?

Select	Answer
A	A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
B	A wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles to each other
C	A wave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
D	A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

13. - E3B01

What is transequatorial propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
B	Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
C	Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
D	Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator

14. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class A
C	Class M
D	Class X

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
C	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
D	All of these choices are correct

16. - E4B16

Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?

Select	Answer
A	S22
B	S12
C	S11
D	S21

17. - E4C04

How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
B	The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
C	The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
D	The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise

18. - E4D12

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Squelch gain rollback
B	Cross-modulation interference
C	Desensitization
D	Quieting

19. - E4E12

What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

Select	Answer
A	Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
B	Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
C	Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
D	A DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals

20. - E5A12

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

Select	Answer
A	218.3 kHz
B	15.7 kHz
C	436.6 kHz
D	31.4 kHz

21. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
B	The turns ratio of a transformer
C	The unit used for Q factor
D	The inverse of impedance

22. - E5C05

What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Venn diagram
B	Far field diagram
C	Phasor diagram
D	Near field diagram

23. - E5D13

How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

Select	Answer
A	70.7 Watts
B	141.4 Watts
C	100 Watts
D	200 Watts

24. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

Select	Answer
A	Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
B	Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
C	Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
D	Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	7
C	5
D	6

26. - E6C11

In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	4
C	5
D	2

27. - E6D07

What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

Select	Answer
A	From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
B	From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
C	From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
D	From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

28. - E6E10

What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?

Select	Answer
A	Stripped lead
B	Direct soldering
C	Virtual lead mounting
D	Surface mount

29. - E6F06

Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

Select	Answer
A	A liquid semiconductor
B	A heavy metal
C	An ordinary metal
D	A crystalline semiconductor

30. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
B	It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
C	It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
D	It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"

31. - E7B03

Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

Select	Answer
A	A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
B	A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
C	A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
D	A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies

32. - E7C12

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

Select	Answer
A	A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
B	A Phase Inverter Load network
C	A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
D	A network with only three discrete parts

33. - E7D13

What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Output voltage multiplied by output current
B	Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
C	Input voltage multiplied by input current
D	Input voltage divided by output current

34. - E7E07

What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency components present in the modulating signal
B	The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
C	The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
D	The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency

35. - E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

Select	Answer
A	6 bits
B	4 bits
C	10 bits
D	8 bits

36. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	1000 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high

37. - E7H03

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	Through link coupling
B	Through a neutralizing capacitor
C	Through a tapped coil
D	Through a capacitive divider

38. - E8A05

What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	By using a grid dip meter
B	By using an absorption wave meter
C	By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
D	By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

39. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
B	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
C	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
D	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission

40. - E8C06

What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 Hz
B	0.3 kHz
C	0.5 kHz
D	1.0 kHz

41. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency hopping
B	Phase compandored spread spectrum
C	Binary phase-shift keying
D	Direct sequence

42. - E9A06

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

Select	Answer
A	It increases geometrically
B	It is essentially unaffected
C	It decreases
D	It increases arithmetically

43. - E9B15

What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	28 dB
B	3 dB
C	24 dB
D	15 dB

44. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

Select	Answer
A	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
B	The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
C	The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
D	The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

45. - E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the Q
B	To lower the losses
C	To cancel capacitive reactance
D	To increase the SWR bandwidth

46. - E9E08

Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR less than 1:1
B	A dielectric constant greater than 1
C	An SWR greater than 1:1
D	A reflection coefficient greater than 1

47. - E9F05

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2.3 meters
B	20 meters
C	0.2 meters
D	3.5 meters

48. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Coaxial-length circles
B	Antenna-length circles
C	Standing wave ratio circles
D	Radiation-pattern circles

49. - E9H06

What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
B	Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
C	The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
D	A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source

50. - E0A08

What does SAR measure?

Select	Answer
A	The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
B	Signal Amplification Rating
C	Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
D	The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

Figure E6-3

Figure E6-5

Figure E9-2