US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2016-2020) Practice Test

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1. - E1A06

Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

Select	Answer
A	At the highest frequency of the channel
B	On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
C	At the center frequency of the channel
D	At the lowest frequency of the channel

2. - E1B02

Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

Select	Answer
A	The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
B	The location is near an area of political conflict
C	The location is in an ITU Zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
D	The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture

3. - E1C06

Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Select	Answer
A	Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
B	A control operator need not be present at the control point
C	Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
D	A control operator must be present at the control point

4. - E1D07

Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
B	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
C	Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
D	All HF bands

5. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Select	Answer
A	The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
B	Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
C	The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
D	The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

6. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

Select	Answer
A	When transmitting international third-party communications
B	When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C	When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
D	When the total money involved does not exceed $25

7. - E2A03

What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

Select	Answer
A	The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
B	The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
C	The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
D	The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

8. - E2B18

On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1255 MHz
B	14.230 MHz
C	29.6 MHz
D	52.525 MHz

9. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
B	At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
C	In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
D	In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency

10. - E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR
B	AX.25
C	802.11
D	AMTOR

11. - E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Select	Answer
A	Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
B	Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
C	Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
D	Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain

12. - E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

Select	Answer
A	Mountain ranges
B	Forests
C	Bodies of water
D	Urban areas

13. - E3B09

At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
B	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
D	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice

14. - E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

Select	Answer
A	HF propagation
B	AC current and impedance
C	VHF radio propagation
D	AC voltage and impedance

15. - E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B	Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
C	All of these choices are correct
D	Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source

16. - E4B08

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Low reluctance input
B	Low impedance input
C	High impedance input
D	High reluctance input

17. - E4C03

What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Cross-modulation interference
B	Capture effect
C	Desensitization
D	Frequency discrimination

18. - E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
B	146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C	146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
D	146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz

19. - E4E11

Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

Select	Answer
A	The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
B	Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
C	You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
D	Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

20. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Parasitic effects are minimized
B	Internal voltages and circulating currents increase
C	Fewer components are needed for the same performance
D	Phase shift can become uncontrolled

21. - E5B05

What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	It is shifted by 90 degrees
B	The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance
C	It is unchanged
D	The sign is reversed

22. - E5C04

Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	A negative phase angle
B	A negative real part
C	A positive phase angle
D	A positive real part

23. - E5D12

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts
B	400 watts
C	50 watts
D	80 watts

24. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?

Select	Answer
A	In high-current rectifier circuits
B	In high-power audio circuits
C	In microwave circuits
D	In very low frequency RF circuits

25. - E6B10

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

Select	Answer
A	5
B	7
C	1
D	6

26. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
B	Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
C	Logic devices that utilize ternary math
D	Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts

27. - E6D04

Which materials are commonly used as a slug core in a variable inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Polystyrene and polyethylene
B	Ferrite and brass
C	Teflon and Delrin
D	Cobalt and aluminum

28. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
B	Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
C	Low leakage doubly insulated package
D	Package mounts in a direct inverted position

29. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Copper oxide
B	Cadmium Sulfide
C	Silicon
D	Selenium

30. - E7A12

What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?

Select	Answer
A	Positive Logic
B	Assertive Logic
C	Reverse Logic
D	Negative logic

31. - E7B04

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Select	Answer
A	At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
B	Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
C	Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
D	At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

32. - E7C02

Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a notch filter
B	It is a band-pass filter
C	It is a low-pass filter
D	It is a high-pass filter

33. - E7D03

What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	A Zener diode
B	A tunnel diode
C	An SCR
D	A varactor diode

34. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove third-order distortion products
B	To reduce impulse noise reception
C	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
D	For higher efficiency

35. - E7F07

What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?

Select	Answer
A	Converting digital signals to analog form
B	Converting analog signals to digital form
C	Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data
D	Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain

36. - E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

Select	Answer
A	76
B	38
C	0.03
D	1

37. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce and Zener
B	Colpitts and Hartley
C	Armstrong and deForest
D	Negative feedback and balanced feedback

38. - E8A02

What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

Select	Answer
A	A square wave
B	A sine wave
C	A sawtooth wave
D	A cosine wave

39. - E8B07

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?

Select	Answer
A	High speed digital modes
B	Extremely low-power contacts
C	EME
D	OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

40. - E8C03

When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?

Select	Answer
A	It improves carrier suppression
B	This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the particular mode
C	All of these choices are correct
D	It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous detector

41. - E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Select	Answer
A	The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
B	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
C	Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
D	The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

42. - E9A16

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	126 watts
B	317 watts
C	2000 watts
D	300 watts

43. - E9B16

How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	1
B	4
C	7
D	3

44. - E9C09

What is a G5RV antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A multi-band trap antenna
B	A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
C	A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
D	A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

45. - E9D10

What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

Select	Answer
A	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
B	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
C	The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
D	The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

46. - E9E07

What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	Characteristic impedance
B	Velocity factor
C	Reflection coefficient
D	Dielectric constant

47. - E9F09

What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	10 meters
B	50 meters
C	24 meters
D	6.9 meters

48. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance along transmission lines
B	Radio propagation
C	Antenna radiation pattern
D	Radiation resistance

49. - E9H04

What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
B	It is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
C	It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
D	It automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations

50. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
B	Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
C	Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
D	Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

Figure E6-3

Figure E7-4

Figure E9-2