US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The total time of the exposure
C	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	All these choices are correct
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	21 years
C	18 years
D	16 years

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
D	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Only contest stations
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Along the gray line
B	Toward the north
C	Toward the rising sun
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
C	HF communication is disturbed
D	HF communication is improved

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because it is the densest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It increases peak power
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	1.38 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	0.5 VDC

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak-to-peak value
B	The peak value
C	The RMS value
D	The reciprocal of the RMS value

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for RF amplification
B	Low power consumption
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Full-wave
C	Synchronous
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Amplitude modulation
D	Multiplex modulation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Binary
C	Volumetric
D	Viterbi

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	11 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	On the same side as the feed point
D	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo