US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	All these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
C	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
D	Unground the base of the tower

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The ITU
C	The control operator
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Under no circumstances
B	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Immediately cease all transmissions

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	BK
C	SK
D	KN

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
B	Toward the north
C	Toward the rising sun
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
B	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
C	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It improves the frequency response
C	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
D	It improves the resolution of the readings

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To increase the “Q” of the antenna

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 2 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Screen grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Half-wave
C	Full-wave
D	Full-wave bridge

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	Less than 50%
C	100%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient audio
D	Insufficient bandwidth

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To prevent overmodulation

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	11 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	3/4 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	1/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very high
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very low
D	Approximately 50 ohms