US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
B	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
C	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
D	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Nets have priority
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Key clicks
B	100 percent copy
C	Chirpy or unstable signal
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	CW
D	USB

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At any point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The F2 region
C	The E region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent excessive drive
B	To increase overall efficiency
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter
B	Antenna and feed line
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Distorted speech
C	Clearly audible speech
D	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Susceptance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	400 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Displacement current coupling

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Its reactance increases
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Forward biased
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class B
B	Class AB
C	Class A
D	Class C

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and dash
B	On and off
C	Mark and space
D	High and low

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
C	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
D	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Lazy H
C	Inverted L
D	Inverted V

Figure G7-1