US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	Outside the building
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C	The entire band
D	The portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	All these choices are correct
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only digital contacts

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	A vertically polarized antenna
D	A special hardware modem

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Improve HF long path propagation
D	Reduce long delayed echoes

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
D	Received power that interferes with SWR readings

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.02 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	240.0 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	67 ohms
B	75 ohms
C	300 ohms
D	150 ohms

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
B	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	Vestigial sideband
D	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Mixer
C	Balanced converter
D	Multiplier

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Viterbi
C	Varicode
D	Binary

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	132 feet
C	84 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	They are all the same length
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

Figure G7-1