US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	All these choices are correct
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They are not permitted
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
D	1500 watts PEP

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Channels 42 through 45
B	Anywhere in the band
C	No part
D	Channels 1 through 4

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Only contest stations
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
C	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Gateway
B	Terminal Node Controller
C	Printer/Server
D	RJ-45

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the MUF
B	Just below the critical frequency
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Short-path
C	Faraday rotation
D	Chordal hop

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
B	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
C	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
D	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1500 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	70 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Inexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A type-S to type-M adaptor
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Rolloff frequency
C	Cutoff frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	All these choices are correct
D	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Frequency inversion
C	Phase inversion
D	Synthesizing

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
C	Upper case letters are sent with more power
D	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	4:1
C	1:4
D	1:2

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	16 feet
C	11 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point