US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	Outside the building
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	30 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
B	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
C	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	1 kHz to 3 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Printer/Server
B	Gateway
C	RJ-45
D	Terminal Node Controller

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Path distance and location
C	All these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A field strength meter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A wavemeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Series-parallel
C	Shunt
D	Bypass

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Farad
C	Ampere
D	Ohm

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	173 volts
C	346 volts
D	692 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	High voltage
C	Long life
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Low power consumption
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	All these choices are correct
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency convolution
C	Frequency conversion
D	Frequency transformation

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio
B	The sum and difference
C	The average
D	The arithmetic product

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	132 feet
C	263 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The spacing of each element along the boom
C	The number of elements on the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out-of-band operation