US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The entire band

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator
B	The ITU
C	The FCC
D	The IEEE

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	5.6 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only contest stations
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
C	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	I have received and understood
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce harmonic radiation
B	To increase overall efficiency
C	To prevent excessive drive
D	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio
B	RF interference
C	Antenna front-to-back ratio
D	Radio wave propagation

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Clearly audible speech
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Transmitter power output
C	Carrier suppression
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and reactance
B	The ratio of voltage to current
C	The product of current and voltage
D	The ratio of current to voltage

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 3 dB
D	Approximately 2 dB

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.17 ohms
B	5.9 ohms
C	17 ohms
D	80 ohms

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	Less than 50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	50%

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Local oscillator
D	RF input

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Varicode
C	Viterbi
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The physical length of the boom
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	All these choices are correct
D	The spacing of each element along the boom

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They have poor harmonic rejection
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

Figure G7-1