US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	The entire band
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Key clicks
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	CW
C	USB
D	LSB

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
B	The position of the Moon in its orbit
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
B	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
C	Check the A-index
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	The ALC action distorts the signal
C	All these choices are correct
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Higher precision
C	Less prone to overload
D	Faster response

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	240.0 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	339.4 volts
D	84.8 volts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	33.3 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Suppressor grid
C	Screen grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	Demodulator stage bandwidth
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Input amplifier gain
D	All these choices are correct

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Single sideband

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The average
B	The ratio
C	The arithmetic product
D	The sum and difference

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Having more nodes increases signal strengths

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	8 feet
C	24 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground