US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	Its frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Its power density
D	Its duty cycle

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	All these choices are correct
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It occupies less bandwidth
B	It allows “hands free” operation
C	The received signal is more natural sounding
D	It provides more power output

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
B	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
C	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is improved
B	HF communication is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	A signal generator
C	An ammeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Overheating of ground straps
C	A ground loop
D	Corrosion of the ground rod

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It reduces harmonic distortion

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	All these choices are correct
C	A transformer
D	A Pi-network

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	12 to 1

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Peak and valley current points
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for power supply regulation

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer digital components are required
B	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
C	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Frequency conversion
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency convolution

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Balanced converter
B	Multiplier
C	Reactance modulator
D	Mixer

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient modulation
B	Overmodulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Long path propagation

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Sloper
C	Inverted L
D	Inverted V