US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	Parallel to the water supply line
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	All these choices are correct
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Send more slowly
C	I am troubled by static
D	Zero beat my signal

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	425 Hz

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	At any point

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Path distance and location
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
B	When high precision is desired
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect all ground conductors in series
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Bond equipment enclosures together
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	12 volts
C	24 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	0.30 henries
B	3.3 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To decrease plate resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	4 GHz
B	50 MHz
C	500 MHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	16
C	3
D	8

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Pure sine wave output
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	SSB-SC
B	WSPR
C	MFSK16
D	PSK31

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	2:1
C	5:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low

Figure G7-1