US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
B	By calculation based on computer modeling
C	All these choices are correct
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
B	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	200 feet
C	250 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	PEP input to the antenna
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	PEP output from the transmitter

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Federal Communications Commission

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 4
B	Region 2
C	Region 3
D	Region 1

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	SK
C	KN
D	AR

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	CW
B	DSB
C	LSB
D	USB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the MUF
B	Just above the LUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F2 region
D	The F1 region

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
B	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	“Picket fencing”
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very high

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	346 volts
C	173 volts
D	692 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	High stability
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
C	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
D	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It eliminates ground loop current
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Rolloff frequency
C	Neper frequency
D	Cutoff frequency

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase convolution
B	Phase inversion
C	Phase modulation
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	MFSK32
C	FT8
D	MSK144

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	2:1
C	1:2
D	4:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	24 feet
C	16 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Broadside to the plane of the halo
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Opposite the feed point