US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 12

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	14250 kHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	All these choices are correct

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am quitting for the day
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
B	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
C	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
D	A digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the LUF
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By clipping noise peaks
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of carrier phase shift
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	Severely distorted audio
C	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Impedance
C	Transmitter power output
D	Carrier suppression

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ohm
B	Farad
C	Siemens
D	Ampere

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	24 volts
C	34 volts
D	8.5 volts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	3.3 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High stability
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
C	A low noise figure VHF connector
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Image frequency
B	Local oscillator
C	Beat frequency oscillator
D	RF input

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	On and off
C	Dot and dash
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	11 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By extending and retracting the whip
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By deploying a capacitance hat