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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

SelectAnswer
ABy measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
BAll these choices are correct
CBy calculation based on computer modeling
DBy calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BOvervoltage on the hot wires
CCurrent flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
DCurrent flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A12 meters
B30 meters
C17 meters
D160 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

SelectAnswer
AThey may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
BThey are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
CThey are not permitted
DOnly “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A10 watts RMS
B1500 watts PEP
CERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
DERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
AFor as long as your current license is valid
B365 days
C180 days
D30 days

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

SelectAnswer
ARegion 1
BRegion 4
CRegion 2
DRegion 3

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
ALess bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
BLess subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
CEase of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
DVery high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly SSTV contacts
BOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
COnly digital contacts
DOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
BThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
CAt the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
DAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

SelectAnswer
AAlpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
BAmerica, Boston, Canada, Denmark
CAble, Baker, Charlie, Dog
DAdam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

SelectAnswer
ARespond when the station broadcasts its SSID
BTransmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
CSend an email to the system control operator
DSend QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

SelectAnswer
AA thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
BA temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
CA sudden drop in the solar flux index
DRipples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

SelectAnswer
AThey are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
BThey are refracted back to Earth
CThey pass through the ionosphere
DThey are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AThe F1 region
BThe F2 region
CThe E region
DThe D region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

SelectAnswer
AReceived frequency may shift several kHz
BCW signals may become severely attenuated
CReceived frequency may become unstable
DReceived signals may become distorted

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

SelectAnswer
APercentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
BLinearity
CPercentage of carrier phase shift
DPercentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

SelectAnswer
AInsulated wire has been used for the ground wire
BThe ground rod is resonant
CFlat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
DThe ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
AIncrease the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
BPrevent distortion of voice signals
CIncrease transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
DDecrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

SelectAnswer
AThe battery charging system
BAll these choices are correct
CThe fuel delivery system
DThe control computers

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
BAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

SelectAnswer
A240.0 volts
B339.4 volts
C84.8 volts
D169.7 volts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

SelectAnswer
AAn inductor in series
BAn inductor in parallel
CA capacitor in series
DA capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

SelectAnswer
ATo decrease plate resistance
BTo increase the control grid resistance
CTo increase efficiency
DTo reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

SelectAnswer
ABetter suited for power supply regulation
BHigh power handling capability
CBetter suited for RF amplification
DLow power consumption

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

SelectAnswer
AA sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
BA series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
CA series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
DA steady DC voltage

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

SelectAnswer
A8
B6
C16
D3

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
AVariable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
BRelatively high-power output
CPure sine wave output
DExtremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
BSignal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
CThe transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
DSignal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
ABandwidth is half the symbol rate
BSymbol rate and bandwidth are not related
CHigher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
DLower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

SelectAnswer
ABy using a parity bit with each character
BBy transmitting redundant information with the data
CBy controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
DBy using the Varicode character set

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

SelectAnswer
A2:1
B4:1
C1:4
D1:2

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

SelectAnswer
AParallel to the antenna element
BAt the center of the antenna
CAs high as possible above the ground
DOn the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
BThe maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
CThe point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
DThe magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

SelectAnswer
ATo enable multiband operation
BTo notch spurious frequencies
CTo prevent out-of-band operation
DTo provide balanced feed point impedance