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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

SelectAnswer
AMake sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
BMake sure the antenna is properly shielded
CPosition the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
DLocate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be bonded together with all other grounds
BThey must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
CLightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
DBends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

SelectAnswer
AThe entire band
BThe portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
CThe portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
DThe portion above 29.5 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

SelectAnswer
AAt any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
BUnder no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
CAmateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
DOnly when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A200 watts PEP output
B1500 watts PEP output
C2000 watts PEP output
D1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

SelectAnswer
AA license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
BOnly a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
COnly an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
DA US operator/primary station license

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

SelectAnswer
ARegion 4
BRegion 3
CRegion 2
DRegion 1

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

SelectAnswer
ASay your call sign once
BSay “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
CSay “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
DSay “Breaker Breaker”

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

SelectAnswer
A150 Hz to 500 Hz
B5 Hz to 50 Hz
C2 kHz to 3 kHz
DApproximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

SelectAnswer
ASend more slowly
BZero beat my signal
CStop sending
DI am troubled by static

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

SelectAnswer
AA map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
BA map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
CA map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
DA map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BFailure to establish a connection between stations
CLong pauses in message transmission
DFrequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

SelectAnswer
ALong term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
BRotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
CThe position of the Moon in its orbit
DCyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

SelectAnswer
ACheck the A-index
BUse a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
CAll these choices are correct
DSend a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

SelectAnswer
AChordal hop
BShort-path
CScatter
DFaraday rotation

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

SelectAnswer
ATo eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
BTo restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
CTo remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
DTo reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmitter balanced mixer output
BAn external RF oscillator
CThe local oscillator of the transmitter
DThe attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

SelectAnswer
AAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
BConnect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
CPlace a ferrite choke on the cable
DGround the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
BAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
CAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
DAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

SelectAnswer
ATo electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
BTo reduce radiation resistance
CTo increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
DTo lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

SelectAnswer
AConductance
BReactance
CReluctance
DAdmittance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A2500 watts
B5000 watts
C625 watts
D8.75 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A1,733 picofarads
B3,583 picofarads
C10.750 nanofarads
D576.9 nanofarads

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

SelectAnswer
AHigh voltage
BHigh discharge current
CRapid recharge
DLong life

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AIts thickness
BIts conductivity
CThe ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
DThe composition, or “mix,” of materials used

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

SelectAnswer
AA series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
BA steady DC voltage
CA sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
DA series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

SelectAnswer
AAn array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
BAn analog mixer
CA digital mixer
DA clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

SelectAnswer
AMixing products are greatly reduced
BFewer digital components are required
CThe DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
DA wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

SelectAnswer
AReceiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
BThe opposite of fade margin
CTransmit power minus receiver sensitivity
DThe difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

SelectAnswer
ATo prevent overmodulation
BTo allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
CTo aid in tuning your transmitter
DSome modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

SelectAnswer
ABy using the Varicode character set
BBy transmitting redundant information with the data
CBy using a parity bit with each character
DBy controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
BThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
CThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
DThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A263 feet
B84 feet
C132 feet
D42 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 1.5 dB higher
BApproximately 9 dB higher
CApproximately 6 dB higher
DApproximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
DA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground