US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	2000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	General and Technician
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
D	Technician only

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 milliwatts
B	1500 watts
C	10 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am quitting for the day
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	All these choices are correct
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	14 days
C	28 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
C	All these choices are correct
D	The ALC action distorts the signal

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A wavemeter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Using surge suppressor power outlets
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	3200 watts
C	400 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High stability
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class A
B	Class B
C	Class C
D	Class AB

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Filter
B	IF amplifier
C	RF amplifier
D	Carrier oscillator

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Local oscillator
B	RF input
C	Beat frequency oscillator
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Viterbi
B	Binary
C	Varicode
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation is independent of frequency
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	132 feet
C	263 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The physical length of the boom
D	The spacing of each element along the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1