US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	1500 watts
C	10 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Double sideband
C	Single phase modulation
D	Single sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Operating full break-in
C	Closing station now
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C	All these choices are correct
D	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	At any point
D	Only at the minimum point

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Time of day and season
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Chordal hop
C	Scatter
D	Short-path

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic transmit/receive switching
B	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	An external RF oscillator
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Carrier suppression
C	Transmitter power output
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	The solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	692 volts
B	173 volts
C	346 volts
D	245 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	12 to 1

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	6 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	10.5 volts
D	12 volts

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave
B	Synchronous
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Full-wave

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class AB
B	Class A
C	Class B
D	Class C

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Detection
C	Modulation
D	Filtering

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	All these choices are correct
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
D	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo