US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 20
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 12
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
B	Sending without error
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Matching the speed of the transmitting station

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Frequent retries or timeouts
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	All these choices are correct
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Path distance and location
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
B	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
C	To prevent transient overmodulation
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Bond equipment enclosures together
B	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Distorted speech
C	Excessive background noise
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
B	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
C	Resistance is cancelled
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	1.4 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	400 watts
D	100 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3,583 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	1,733 picofarads

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	BNC
C	RCA Phono
D	Type N

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce power supply ripple
B	To minimize transmitter power output
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Odd-order
C	Even-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long path propagation
B	Backscatter propagation
C	Insufficient modulation
D	Overmodulation

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	33 feet
C	16 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Inverted V
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted L