US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters
B	20 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	RMS input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	PEP input to the antenna

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	1500 watts

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A special hardware modem
B	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	A vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted back to Earth
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Faraday rotation
C	Chordal hop
D	Scatter

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	Clearly audible speech
C	Distorted speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	346 volts
B	692 volts
C	245 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	150 ohms
B	67 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Catastrophic failure is likely
B	Its reactance increases
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	BNC
C	RCA Phono
D	Type N

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Diodes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transformers and transducers

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Demodulator stage bandwidth
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
C	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
D	The opposite of fade margin

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Intermodulation
C	Rolloff
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A code using error detection and correction
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	75 ohms

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Coil the radials
B	Slope the radials downward
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The physical length of the boom
D	The spacing of each element along the boom

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Broadside to the plane of the halo
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Opposite the feed point