US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
B	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	The entire band

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	Under no circumstances
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	When under automatic control

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	All these choices are correct
C	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	The position of the Moon in its orbit
B	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
C	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
D	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Check the A-index
B	All these choices are correct
C	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
D	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
C	When high precision is desired
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 watts
B	400 watts
C	200 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	12 to 1
C	24 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Screen grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	4 GHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	3
C	8
D	6

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
C	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
D	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Volumetric
B	Viterbi
C	Varicode
D	Binary

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

Figure G7-1