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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

SelectAnswer
AFile an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
BAll these choices are correct
CTake action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
DSecure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

SelectAnswer
ANotify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
BAll these choices are correct
CUnground the base of the tower
DMake sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters
B30 meters
C17 meters
D12 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
AObservation of propagation and reception
BAutomatic identification of repeaters
CTransmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
DAll these choices are correct

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A5.6 kHz
B2.8 kHz
C3 kHz
D1.8 kHz

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

SelectAnswer
AContact the FCC to have the license reinstated
BThere are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
CThe applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
DThey must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

SelectAnswer
AA system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
BA system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
CThese frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
DThese frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

SelectAnswer
ASSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
BSSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
COnly one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
DOnly one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
BOnly digital contacts
COnly SSTV contacts
DOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

SelectAnswer
AMatching the speed of the transmitting station
BSending without error
COperating split to avoid interference on frequency
DMatching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

SelectAnswer
ATo help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
BThe FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
CThe log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
DThe FCC requires a log of all international contacts

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

SelectAnswer
AYou may be listening on the wrong sideband
BYou may have selected the wrong baud rate
CThe mark and space frequencies may be reversed
DAll these choices are correct

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

SelectAnswer
A20 to 40 hours
B1 to 2 hours
C8 minutes
D28 days

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

SelectAnswer
ADouble-hop propagation along the path is more common
BPropagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
CPropagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
DHF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

SelectAnswer
AThe E region
BThe F2 region
CThe D region
DThe F1 region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

SelectAnswer
AReceived frequency may shift several kHz
BCW signals may become severely attenuated
CReceived signals may become distorted
DReceived frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AImpedance of coaxial cable
BGain of a directional antenna
CFront-to-back ratio of an antenna
DPower output from a transmitter

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

SelectAnswer
ABypass inductor
BBypass capacitor
CReverse-biased diode
DForward-biased diode

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

SelectAnswer
ADecrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
BIncrease transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
CPrevent distortion of voice signals
DIncrease the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

SelectAnswer
AThe socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
BThe DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
CDrawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
DThe socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AConductance
BReactance
CReluctance
DAdmittance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 2 dB
BApproximately 3 dB
CApproximately 9 dB
DApproximately 6 dB

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AAdditional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
BThe input voltage is multiplied by 4
CThe input voltage is divided by 4
DAdditional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

SelectAnswer
AControl grid
BSuppressor grid
CScreen grid
DTrigger electrode

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
ADigital
BProgrammable Logic
CAnalog
DMMIC

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 1
BSymbol 6
CSymbol 4
DSymbol 7

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

SelectAnswer
AOutput is high when either or both inputs are low
BOutput is high only when both inputs are high
COutput is low only when both inputs are high
DOutput is low when either or both inputs are high

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

SelectAnswer
AInsertion loss
BUltimate rejection
CRolloff
DNotch depth

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

SelectAnswer
AInsufficient audio
BInsufficient bandwidth
CExcessive bandwidth
DFrequency drift

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

SelectAnswer
AThe average
BThe sum and difference
CThe arithmetic product
DThe ratio

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

SelectAnswer
ADMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
BFT8, FT4, and FST4
CWinlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
DWSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

SelectAnswer
ABetween 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B5:1
CBetween 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D1:1

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
ALengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
BSlope the radials upward
CCoil the radials
DSlope the radials downward

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

SelectAnswer
AThe reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
BThey are all the same length
CRelative length depends on the frequency of operation
DThe reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

SelectAnswer
ABy deploying a capacitance hat
BBy varying the base loading inductance
CBy extending and retracting the whip
DBy varying its body capacitance

Figure G7-1