US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
B	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	14250 kHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	20 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	Technician only
C	General and Technician
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 1
C	Region 3
D	Region 4

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
B	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	KN
C	AR
D	BK

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The long path azimuth of a distant station
C	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	A wavemeter
C	A field strength meter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
D	A series resistor must be in place

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	B
C	Z
D	Y

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	2120 watts
B	1500 watts
C	1060 watts
D	530 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	Low power consumption
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Only one diode is required
B	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
C	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
D	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Neper frequency
B	Notch frequency
C	Cutoff frequency
D	Rolloff frequency

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase transformation
B	Phase modulation
C	Phase convolution
D	Phase inversion

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	The checksum overflows
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation increases

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Isotropic
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They have poor harmonic rejection