US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
B	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
C	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
D	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	All these choices are correct
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	All these choices are correct
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 6 kHz
B	2 kHz to 3 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
D	Sending without error

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	Toward the rising sun

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Printer/Server
B	Terminal Node Controller
C	Gateway
D	RJ-45

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
B	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
D	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
C	When testing logic circuits
D	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
B	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It equals the average of the branch currents

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	30 millihenries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	6 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	500 MHz
C	4 GHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Return loss
D	Q

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
C	Amplitude compressed AM
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	3F1-F2
B	All these choices are correct
C	2F1-F2
D	5F1-3F2

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	WSPR
C	PSK31
D	SSB-SC

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be fed with open wire line
B	They must be used with an antenna tuner
C	They have poor harmonic rejection
D	They present low impedance on all design frequencies

Figure G7-1