US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
C	All these choices are correct
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	2000 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	Technician only
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	2 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C	Key clicks
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
B	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	HF communication is improved
C	HF communication is disturbed
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted back to Earth
B	They pass through the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the highest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The local oscillator of the transmitter
B	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	An external RF oscillator

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 times
B	Approximately 4 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 1.5 times

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
B	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 2 dB
B	Approximately 6 dB
C	Approximately 9 dB
D	Approximately 3 dB

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	17 ohms
B	80 ohms
C	0.17 ohms
D	5.9 ohms

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High stability

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
B	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
C	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	FM
C	AM
D	SSB

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Double-sideband modulated RF
D	Frequency modulated RF

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase transformation
B	Phase modulation
C	Phase convolution
D	Phase inversion

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Varicode
B	Viterbi
C	Binary
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
C	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
D	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Larger-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Inverted V
C	Sloper
D	Inverted L