US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It causes radiation poisoning
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	300 baud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Long pauses in message transmission
C	All these choices are correct
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Degrade ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Improve ground wave propagation

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Time of day and season
C	Path distance and location
D	All these choices are correct

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Short-path
C	Chordal hop
D	Scatter

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce harmonic radiation
B	To prevent excessive drive
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
B	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
C	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
D	Place a ferrite choke on the cable

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 times
B	Approximately 2 times
C	Approximately 8 times
D	Approximately 4 times

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Reactance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 9 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	3.5 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Screen grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
B	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
C	Only one diode is required
D	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
B	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	Zero
D	90 degrees

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Volumetric
C	Viterbi
D	Varicode

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D	It steadily decreases

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Closer element spacing
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To enable multiband operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies