US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	All these choices are correct
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	30 amperes
D	15 amperes

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	5.6 kHz

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
B	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ammeter
B	A signal generator
C	An oscilloscope
D	An ohmmeter

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
D	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	18 dB
C	15 dB
D	12 dB

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Y
B	Z
C	B
D	X

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak value
D	The peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	3,583 picofarads
C	1,733 picofarads
D	576.9 nanofarads

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Suppressor grid
C	Trigger electrode
D	Control grid

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	RCA Phono
C	PL-259
D	Type N

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave
B	Synchronous
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier and a divider
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Pulse modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Intermodulation
C	Rolloff
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
B	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
C	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D	The signal is 3 dB over S9

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Coil the radials

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The spacing of each element along the boom
C	The physical length of the boom
D	The number of elements on the boom

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	In the plane of the loop
B	Broadside to the loop
C	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
D	Broadside and in the plane of the loop