US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The IEEE
C	The ITU
D	The control operator

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP input to the antenna
B	PEP output from the transmitter
C	RMS output from the transmitter
D	RMS input to the antenna

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
C	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
D	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Only contest stations

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	100 percent copy
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
B	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
D	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Path distance and location

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of the Doppler effect
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because of temperature inversions

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
B	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	Standing wave ratio
D	Radio wave propagation

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Overheating of ground straps
B	A ground loop
C	Corrosion of the ground rod
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
B	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
C	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
D	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	The fuel delivery system
B	All these choices are correct
C	The control computers
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Ampere
C	Ohm
D	Farad

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	0.707
B	2.00
C	1.00
D	1.414

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	30 millihenries
C	0.30 henries
D	3.3 millihenries

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	Rapid recharge
C	High discharge current
D	High voltage

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave
B	Synchronous
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	50%
D	100%

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Demodulator stage bandwidth
D	Input amplifier noise figure

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Even-order
C	Second harmonics
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By transmitting redundant information with the data
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By using a parity bit with each character

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials upward
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials downward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1/2 wavelength
C	1 wavelength
D	3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It narrows the main lobe in elevation