US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	10 watts RMS

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 1
B	Region 4
C	Region 3
D	Region 2

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	All these choices are correct
D	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
D	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
C	Send a NAK code
D	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When high precision is desired
B	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
C	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D	When testing logic circuits

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 20 times more powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very low

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	3200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High stability
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High capacitance for given volume

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	High power handling capability
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Zero
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	3F1-F2
C	5F1-3F2
D	All these choices are correct

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	MFSK32
C	AMTOR
D	FT8

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower radiation resistance
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower feed point impedance
D	Lower ground losses

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By varying the base loading inductance

Figure G7-1