US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator must be insulated from ground
B	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	All HF bands
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
B	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
C	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	There is no age limit
C	21 years
D	16 years

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the band
B	Channels 1 through 4
C	No part
D	Channels 42 through 45

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	Nets have priority

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	No US stations should call
B	Operating full break-in
C	Closing station now
D	Listening only for a specific station or stations

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	All these choices are correct
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade ground wave propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
B	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
B	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two swept frequency tones

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A chirpy CW signal
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Series-parallel
C	Shunt
D	Bypass

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	67 ohms
C	150 ohms
D	300 ohms

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A low noise figure VHF connector
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A nickel plated version of the PL-259

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Cutoff frequency
B	Rolloff frequency
C	Neper frequency
D	Notch frequency

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Frequency modulation
D	Power modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	High and low
B	On and off
C	Dot and dash
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	132 feet
C	84 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To provide balanced feed point impedance

Figure G7-1