US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	25 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The upper frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC
B	The control operator
C	The IEEE
D	The ITU

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	365 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	180 days

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say “Breaker Breaker”

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	USB
B	LSB
C	DSB
D	CW

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is disturbed
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communication is improved

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	Check the A-index
C	All these choices are correct
D	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The E region
C	The F2 region
D	The D region

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent transient overmodulation
B	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
C	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Receiver
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmitter

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	3200 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Mutual inductance
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Displacement current coupling
D	Mutual capacitance

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Rapid recharge
B	High voltage
C	High discharge current
D	Long life

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Analog
C	Digital
D	MMIC

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
B	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
C	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
C	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
D	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	101.75 Hz
C	5 kHz
D	60 kHz

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

Select	Answer
A	The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
B	The signal is 3 dB over S9
C	The signal is S3 (weak signals)
D	The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Select	Answer
A	Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
B	Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
C	Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
D	Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	21 feet
C	8 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The spacing of each element along the boom
B	The physical length of the boom
C	All these choices are correct
D	The number of elements on the boom

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very high
D	Approximately 300 ohms