US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Outside the building
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Next to the closest power pole
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
C	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
D	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
B	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	365 days
C	180 days
D	30 days

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit audio or microphone gain
B	Attenuator level
C	RF clipping level
D	Antenna inductance or capacitance

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	SK
B	AR
C	BK
D	KN

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows accurate land masses

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	4 to 8 minutes
B	28 days
C	14 days
D	15 hours to several days

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
D	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope uses less power
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	Greater precision
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Distorted speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Clearly audible speech

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
D	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
B	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
C	Resonance causes impedance to be very low
D	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	625 watts
B	8.75 watts
C	2500 watts
D	5000 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	Its reactance increases

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	Its conductivity
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The opposite of fade margin
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
D	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	432 MHz
B	902 MHz
C	2.4 GHz
D	10.7 GHz

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	2:1
C	5:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D	As high as possible above the ground

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 300 ohms
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low

Figure G7-1