US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	All these choices are correct
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
B	The entire band
C	The portion above 29.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	100 feet
C	50 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1200 baud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
B	Under no circumstances
C	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
D	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Key clicks
C	100 percent copy
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce long delayed echoes
B	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Improve HF long path propagation

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	Poor propagation at any time of day
C	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
D	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of the Doppler effect
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	Received frequency may become unstable
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
B	All these choices are correct
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	300 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Its reactance increases
B	Harmonics are generated
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Inherently more stable
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	More than 50% but less than 100%
C	Less than 50%
D	50%

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Modulation
C	All these choices are correct
D	Filtering

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
B	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
C	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Odd-order
C	Second harmonics
D	Even-order

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By using the Varicode character set

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	5:1

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Coil the radials
C	Slope the radials upward
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner