US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	All these choices are correct
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 20
D	AWG number 8

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The portion above 29.5 MHz
B	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The entire band

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Increase your power
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Send slower

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows accurate land masses
C	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
B	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
C	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
B	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
C	Poor propagation at any time of day
D	High levels of atmospheric noise or static

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
C	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Less prone to overload
C	Faster response
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Distorted speech
B	Excessive background noise
C	All these choices are correct
D	Excess intermodulation products

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Q of the antenna will be very low
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	2500 watts
B	625 watts
C	5000 watts
D	8.75 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	1,000 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	70 microfarads

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
B	The resistor could overheat
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	8
C	3
D	16

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier noise figure
C	Demodulator stage bandwidth
D	Input amplifier gain

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By using a parity bit with each character

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	42 feet
B	132 feet
C	263 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By varying the base loading inductance