US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
C	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Outside the building
D	Parallel to the water supply line

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	12 meters
D	20 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
B	A US operator/primary station license
C	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	All these choices are correct
C	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	KN
C	SK
D	AR

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	Printer/Server
B	RJ-45
C	Gateway
D	Terminal Node Controller

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the maximum point
B	Only at the minimum point
C	At any point
D	At the summer solstice

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	The local oscillator of the transmitter
C	An external RF oscillator
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Excess intermodulation products
C	All these choices are correct
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ampere
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	400 watts
C	200 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	High stability

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	90 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Viterbi
C	Volumetric
D	Varicode

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	1:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D	5:1

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted L
B	Inverted V
C	Sloper
D	Lazy H