US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
C	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	Acceptable modulation limits
B	Electrical safety of the station
C	Acceptable bandwidth limits
D	RF exposure limits of the human body

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	12 meters
C	11 meters
D	30 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	250 feet
C	200 feet
D	100 feet

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
C	General and Technician
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
B	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It provides more power output
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It allows “hands free” operation

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Immediately cease all transmissions
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	SK
C	BK
D	KN

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
B	Another name for the American sunspot number
C	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

14. - G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
B	The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
C	Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
D	The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Faraday rotation
B	Short-path
C	Chordal hop
D	Scatter

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A sidetone monitor
D	A field strength meter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	Distorted speech
C	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
D	Clearly audible speech

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To reduce radiation resistance
D	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Admittance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	24 volts
B	12 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	34 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
C	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Enhancement and depletion modes
C	Peak and valley current points
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
D	By creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	All these choices are correct
C	FM
D	AM

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Pure sine wave output

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Vestigial sideband
B	Single sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Local oscillator
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	RF input

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MSK144
B	MFSK32
C	AMTOR
D	FT8

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Lower ground losses
C	Lower radiation resistance
D	Shorter radials

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They have poor harmonic rejection
B	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
C	They must be fed with open wire line
D	They must be used with an antenna tuner

Figure G7-1