US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	10 watts RMS
C	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
B	Under no circumstances
C	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
D	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Along the gray line
C	Toward the north
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
D	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Path distance and location
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
B	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
D	The E region is not present

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	The ALC action distorts the signal
B	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
C	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Standing wave ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Using surge suppressor power outlets
D	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Carrier suppression
C	Received signal strength
D	Impedance

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Series-parallel
B	Shunt
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Bypass

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	1500 watts
C	530 watts
D	2120 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitive coupling
B	Mutual inductance
C	Displacement current coupling
D	Mutual capacitance

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Control grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Suppressor grid
D	Screen grid

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 2
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	Less than 50%
D	More than 50% but less than 100%

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	Carrier oscillator
C	IF amplifier
D	Filter

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient audio
B	Frequency drift
C	Excessive bandwidth
D	Insufficient bandwidth

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	2:1
C	1:5
D	5:1

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
B	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
C	It must be longer than 1 wavelength
D	Station equipment may carry significant RF current

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
C	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point

Figure G7-1