US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
B	All these choices are correct
C	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
D	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The lower frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	100 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	30 days
C	365 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuator level
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	Antenna inductance or capacitance
D	RF clipping level

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	1 kHz to 3 kHz

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the rising sun
B	Toward the north
C	Along the gray line
D	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A digital protocol used with Winlink
B	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
C	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
D	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	Another name for the American sunspot number
B	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
C	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
D	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
C	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Short-path
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent excessive drive
B	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
B	When testing logic circuits
C	When high precision is desired
D	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive background noise
B	Excess intermodulation products
C	All these choices are correct
D	Distorted speech

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	B
C	X
D	Y

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 11 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Its reactance increases
C	Catastrophic failure is likely
D	It becomes capacitive

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	4 GHz
B	40 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	500 MHz

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	100%
B	Less than 50%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	50%

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Single sideband
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	16 kHz
C	8 kHz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using a parity bit with each character
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Isotropic
B	Hemispherical
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	They are all the same length
D	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To provide balanced feed point impedance
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To prevent out-of-band operation
D	To notch spurious frequencies

Figure G7-1