US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 16
C	AWG number 8
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The upper frequency portion
D	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D	The Universal Licensing System

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
B	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must be for other licensed amateurs
D	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say “Breaker Breaker”
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only SSTV contacts
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
B	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
D	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Reduce long delayed echoes
C	Improve HF long path propagation
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Percentage of frequency modulation
C	Linearity
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases average power
B	It increases peak power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It reduces intermodulation distortion

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	34 volts
B	24 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	14.3 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	7 millihenries
D	1,000 millihenries

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High voltage
C	High discharge current
D	Rapid recharge

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A low noise figure VHF connector
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 7
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	An amplifier and a divider
D	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

28. - G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Select	Answer
A	Notch frequency
B	Cutoff frequency
C	Rolloff frequency
D	Neper frequency

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	5F1-3F2
C	3F1-F2
D	All these choices are correct

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and dash
B	On and off
C	High and low
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	2:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	As high as possible above the ground
B	Parallel to the antenna element
C	At the center of the antenna
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
C	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To provide balanced feed point impedance
C	To notch spurious frequencies
D	To enable multiband operation

Figure G7-1