US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	All these choices are correct
D	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	18155 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	50 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	There is no age limit
C	16 years
D	21 years

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am quitting for the day
C	I am ready to receive
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
B	All these choices are correct
C	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
D	You may be listening on the wrong sideband

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Carrier suppression
C	Impedance
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	A series resistor must be in place
D	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 watts
B	Approximately 61 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 milliwatts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is divided by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	High capacitance for given volume
B	High stability
C	Tight tolerance
D	Comparatively low cost

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	All these choices are correct
C	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Local oscillator
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	FT8
C	AMTOR
D	MSK144

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
C	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground