US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	24900 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
B	1500 watts PEP
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
B	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
C	Only those of the remote station’s country
D	Only those of the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

Select	Answer
A	“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B	“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C	“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
D	“Will you keep the frequency clear?”

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
B	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	All these choices are correct
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is disturbed
B	HF communication is improved
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
B	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
C	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
D	HF communications over the path are enhanced

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Short-path
B	Faraday rotation
C	Chordal hop
D	Scatter

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A field strength meter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
B	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Ohm
C	Siemens
D	Farad

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	530 watts
B	1060 watts
C	2120 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	1,000 millihenries
C	14.3 millihenries
D	70 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	All these choices are correct
D	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	360 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Return loss
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency convolution
B	Frequency modulation
C	Frequency transformation
D	Frequency conversion

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
B	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It is unaffected by the height above ground
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
B	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length