US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable bandwidth limits
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable modulation limits

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	180 days
B	365 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	30 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must be for other licensed amateurs
B	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
C	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
D	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	It provides more power output
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	The received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	All these choices are correct
D	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	I have received and understood
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	CW
C	DSB
D	USB

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	8 minutes

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
B	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
C	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
D	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Greater precision
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	8.5 volts
C	34 volts
D	24 volts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
B	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	High discharge current
B	Long life
C	Rapid recharge
D	High voltage

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	50 MHz
B	40 GHz
C	500 MHz
D	4 GHz

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	16
C	3
D	6

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
B	To minimize radiation resistance
C	To reduce power supply ripple
D	To minimize transmitter power output

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
B	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
C	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
D	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Synthesizing
B	Phase inversion
C	Heterodyning
D	Frequency inversion

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
B	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	263 feet
C	132 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/2 wavelength

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
B	Broadside to the loop
C	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
D	In the plane of the loop