US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	In series with each ground lead
C	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
D	At the closest power pole ground electrode

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	160 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
C	Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
D	Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	16 years
C	There is no age limit
D	21 years

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	It allows “hands free” operation
B	The received signal is more natural sounding
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It provides more power output

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
C	All these choices are correct
D	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
C	All these choices are correct
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Always call on the station’s frequency
B	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
C	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
D	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Phone signals have high intelligibility
B	Signals have a fluttering sound
C	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
D	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent excessive drive
B	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
C	To increase overall efficiency
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Standing wave ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
B	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
C	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
D	Prevent distortion of voice signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	84.8 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	169.7 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Saturation and cutoff
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Peak and valley current points

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
B	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
C	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
D	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	270 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
B	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Notch depth
B	Rolloff
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Vestigial sideband
C	Phase modulation
D	Single sideband

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order
B	Second harmonics
C	Even-order
D	Intercept point

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	High and low
C	Dot and dash
D	On and off

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	4:1
C	1:2
D	1:4

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily decreases
D	It steadily increases

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
B	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
C	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
D	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency