US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
B	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
C	All these choices are correct
D	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	In series with each ground lead
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
B	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
C	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
D	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
C	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
D	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
B	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B	All these choices are correct
C	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RF clipping level
B	Antenna inductance or capacitance
C	Attenuator level
D	Transmit audio or microphone gain

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Switch to the opposite sideband
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	I have received and understood
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	Send slower

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Adam, Boy, Charles, David

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

Select	Answer
A	A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
B	A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
C	A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
D	A digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	At the summer solstice
B	At any point
C	Only at the minimum point
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are attenuated before reaching the destination

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The E region
B	The D region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
B	To prevent transient overmodulation
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To prevent key clicks on CW

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Faster response
C	Higher precision
D	Better for measuring computer circuits

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Admittance
D	Conductance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	346 volts
D	173 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	120 volts
C	40 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	Analog
C	MMIC
D	Programmable Logic

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the divider
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Return loss
C	Insertion loss
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Pulse modulation
B	Amplitude modulation
C	Multiplex modulation
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
B	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
D	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
B	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
C	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
B	Attenuation increases
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Omnidirectional in azimuth
B	Bi-directional in azimuth
C	Hemispherical
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very low
D	Very high