US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the ground wire
B	Only the neutral wire
C	All wires
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	60 meters
C	12 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
C	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only contest stations
B	Any caller is welcome to respond
C	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D	Only stations in Germany

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Inform your local emergency coordinator
D	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	AR
B	KN
C	SK
D	BK

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Path distance and location
C	All these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
B	The E region is not present
C	The ionospheric region involved is unstable
D	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
C	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
D	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the resolution of the readings
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	A ground loop
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	34 volts
C	24 volts
D	12 volts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	1.0 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	0.1 volt

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Programmable Logic
B	Digital
C	Analog
D	MMIC

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is high only when both inputs are high
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Return loss
B	Q
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Insertion loss

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	Vestigial sideband
C	8-tone frequency shift keying
D	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It is required by FCC rules

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Dot and dash
B	On and off
C	High and low
D	Mark and space

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	As high as possible above the ground
B	At the center of the antenna
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 9 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying its body capacitance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By varying the base loading inductance
D	By extending and retracting the whip

Figure G7-1