US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
B	The generator must be insulated from ground
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	60 meters
C	30 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts PEP output
B	20 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	2.8 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	3 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	365 days
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	For as long as your current license is valid

7. - G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
B	Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
C	Under no circumstances except for emergencies
D	Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	A form of Packet Radio
B	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
C	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D	All of the above

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	At any point
D	Only at the maximum point

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter balanced mixer output
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Distorted speech
C	Excessive background noise
D	All these choices are correct

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The fuel delivery system
C	The control computers
D	The battery charging system

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 percent
B	20.6 percent
C	25.9 percent
D	10.9 percent

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is divided by 4
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

Select	Answer
A	8.5 volts
B	6 volts
C	12 volts
D	10.5 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	3
C	16
D	8

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Extremely narrow tuning range
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient audio
C	Insufficient bandwidth
D	Frequency drift

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Heterodyning
C	Synthesizing
D	Frequency inversion

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	FT8, FT4, and FST4

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:2
B	1:4
C	4:1
D	2:1

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	All these choices are correct
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
B	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
C	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
D	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

Figure G7-1