US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
C	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
D	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
C	The generator must be insulated from ground
D	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
C	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Observation of propagation and reception
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
B	The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
C	The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
D	The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The third party is not a US citizen
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
B	Switch to the opposite sideband
C	Decrease power and continue to transmit
D	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Change frequency
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Traffic relay procedure net operation
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	85 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	20 to 40 hours
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just below the critical frequency

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
C	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
D	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two swept frequency tones
B	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
C	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
D	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass inductor

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
B	To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
C	To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
D	To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	0.5 watts
C	200 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
B	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
B	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
C	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
D	The resistor could overheat

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Half-wave
B	Full-wave bridge
C	Full-wave
D	Synchronous

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is high only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is low only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize radiation resistance
B	To reduce power supply ripple
C	To minimize transmitter power output
D	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	The opposite of fade margin
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
D	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
C	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
B	It steadily increases
C	It steadily decreases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
B	Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
C	Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
D	SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length