US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	30 amperes
B	25 amperes
C	15 amperes
D	20 amperes

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	160 meters
C	20 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	56 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
B	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
C	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
D	Very high-fidelity voice modulation

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
B	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
C	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Closing station now
B	Listening only for a specific station or stations
C	No US stations should call
D	Operating full break-in

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
B	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
C	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

Select	Answer
A	All of the above
B	A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
C	An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
D	A form of Packet Radio

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Reduce long delayed echoes
D	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Scatter
C	Short-path
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An oscilloscope
C	A signal generator
D	An ammeter

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
B	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Bond equipment enclosures together

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

Select	Answer
A	12 volts
B	34 volts
C	8.5 volts
D	24 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	0.07 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	1,000 microfarads

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Catastrophic failure is likely
B	Its reactance increases
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Harmonics are generated

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	In the tunnel-effect region
B	Forward biased
C	Reverse biased
D	At the Zener voltage

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 11

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low only when both inputs are high
B	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B	The opposite of fade margin
C	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
D	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Header
C	Directory
D	Trailer

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	450 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	100 ohms

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Bi-directional in azimuth
B	Isotropic
C	Hemispherical
D	Omnidirectional in azimuth

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
B	In the plane of the loop
C	Broadside to the loop
D	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

Figure G7-1