US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
C	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
D	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
D	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	19.6 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	For as long as your current license is valid
B	180 days
C	30 days
D	365 days

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	3 kHz to 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
B	Send a NAK code
C	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
B	Ripples in the geomagnetic force
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the LUF
D	Just above the critical frequency

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the highest
D	Because it is the densest

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
B	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
C	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
D	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	A sidetone monitor
C	A field strength meter
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	A ground loop
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
D	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To lower the radiation angle

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and voltage
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The ratio of voltage to current

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	400 watts
B	1.4 watts
C	100 watts
D	353.5 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
D	The input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.7 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.3 volts

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse biased
B	Forward biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 6
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Ultimate rejection
B	Q
C	Insertion loss
D	Return loss

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Mixer interference
C	Quadrature response
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
B	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
C	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
D	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Front-to-back ratio decreases
C	Gain increases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
B	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Directional transmitting for low HF bands

Figure G7-1