US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
B	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
D	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	20 amperes
B	15 amperes
C	25 amperes
D	30 amperes

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
B	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
B	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Stop sending
B	Zero beat my signal
C	Send more slowly
D	I am troubled by static

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
C	Degrade ground wave propagation
D	Improve ground wave propagation

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just above the critical frequency
B	Just above the LUF
C	Just below the MUF
D	Just below the critical frequency

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
C	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
B	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C	Minimum SWR on the antenna
D	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
B	All these choices are correct
C	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Harmonic radiation may increase

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
B	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	High voltage
C	Rapid recharge
D	High discharge current

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
B	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
C	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
D	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	360 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	180 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	6
B	16
C	8
D	3

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
B	Mixing products are greatly reduced
C	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
D	Fewer digital components are required

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Select	Answer
A	Long path propagation
B	Overmodulation
C	Backscatter propagation
D	Insufficient modulation

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	21 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Sloper
B	Inverted V
C	Lazy H
D	Inverted L