US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	All these choices are correct
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	By calculation based on computer modeling

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
B	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
C	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
D	They must be bonded together with all other grounds

3. - G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
B	The entire band
C	28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
D	28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
C	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	100 watts
C	10 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single phase modulation
B	Single sideband
C	Frequency modulation
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease power and continue to transmit
B	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
C	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
B	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Send QRL in Morse code
C	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D	Send an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	HF communication is improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D	HF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the MUF
B	Just above the critical frequency
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	A signal generator
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Bypass inductor
D	Forward-biased diode

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times less powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	346 volts
B	173 volts
C	692 volts
D	245 volts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	25.5 volts
B	40 volts
C	120 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

Select	Answer
A	500 MHz
B	4 GHz
C	50 MHz
D	40 GHz

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Capacitors and inductors
B	Transformers and transducers
C	All these choices are correct
D	Diodes

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Cutoff and rolloff
B	Pole and zero
C	Upper and lower half-power
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its encoding provides error correction
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	2F1-F2
B	3F1-F2
C	All these choices are correct
D	5F1-3F2

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	432 MHz
B	902 MHz
C	10.7 GHz
D	2.4 GHz

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	1:1
C	5:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By varying its body capacitance