US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
B	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
D	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	Always hold on to the tower with one hand

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	30 meters
C	60 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
B	The Federal Communications Commission
C	The Universal Licensing System
D	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	All these choices are correct
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	Approximately 6 kHz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	BK
D	AR

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Select	Answer
A	Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
B	Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C	Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
D	Send a NAK code

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	1 to 2 hours
C	28 days
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Chordal hop
B	Short-path
C	Scatter
D	Faraday rotation

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Gain of a directional antenna
C	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
B	14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
C	14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
D	14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	6 watts
B	60 watts
C	24 watts
D	2.4 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	576.9 nanofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	3,583 picofarads
D	1,733 picofarads

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	PL-259
C	RCA Phono
D	BNC

26. - G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Select	Answer
A	The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
B	The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
C	More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
D	Only one diode is required

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To keep the carrier on frequency
D	To limit the modulation index

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Pole and zero
B	Cutoff and rolloff
C	Upper and lower half-power
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
B	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
C	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Intermediate interference
C	Mixer interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Header
B	Trailer
C	Directory
D	Preamble

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Select	Answer
A	Slope the radials downward
B	Slope the radials upward
C	Coil the radials
D	Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Loading coils in series with the element

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By varying its body capacitance