US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
B	All these choices are correct
C	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	In series with each ground lead
B	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	Where the feed lines enter the building

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	21300 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	14250 kHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
D	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
B	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	All these choices are correct
D	The third party is not a US citizen

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

Select	Answer
A	The received signal is more natural sounding
B	It allows “hands free” operation
C	It occupies less bandwidth
D	It provides more power output

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
B	Decrease power and continue to transmit
C	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Change frequency
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
D	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	All these choices are correct
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	Check the A-index

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	No change will be observed
C	A pronounced peak
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Standing wave ratio
B	Radio wave propagation
C	RF interference
D	Antenna front-to-back ratio

18. - G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
B	Arcing at a poor electrical connection
C	Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
D	Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 10 times less powerful
D	It is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	A series resistor must be in place
B	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of the branch currents
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 henries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio with equalized frequency response
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
B	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Beat frequency oscillator
B	Image frequency
C	RF input
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
B	Entire file received correctly
C	Packet was received without error
D	Request retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Isotropic
C	Omnidirectional in azimuth
D	Bi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Front-to-back ratio decreases
C	Resonant frequency is lower
D	Gain increases

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To enable multiband operation
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies