US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
D	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	At the closest power pole ground electrode
B	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
C	Where the feed lines enter the building
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
D	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the band
B	Channels 42 through 45
C	No part
D	Channels 1 through 4

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only SSTV contacts
C	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	I am quitting for the day
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
B	All these choices are correct
C	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
C	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because it is the highest
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because of the Doppler effect

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
C	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Linearity
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Percentage of frequency modulation

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
B	Bond equipment enclosures together
C	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
D	Connect all ground conductors in series

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces harmonic distortion
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	169.7 volts
B	240.0 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	339.4 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	12 to 1

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Tight tolerance
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Comparatively low cost
D	High stability

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
D	Ferrites expel magnetic fields

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
B	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	FT8, FT4, and FST4
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	21 feet
C	11 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By varying the base loading inductance