US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
B	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Outside the building
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	20 meters
C	160 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1200 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
B	Only those of the FCC
C	Only those of the remote station’s country
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations in Germany
B	Any caller is welcome to respond
C	Only contest stations
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	KN
B	SK
C	AR
D	BK

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Low-power transmit operation
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Remote piloted model control

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	SSB
B	USB
C	DSB
D	LSB

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
C	80 meters and 160 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

14. - G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are attenuated before reaching the destination
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The F2 region
C	The E region
D	The D region

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may shift several kHz
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received signals may become distorted
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Greater precision
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
B	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
C	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces harmonic distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces intermodulation distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
B	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

Select	Answer
A	12.2 percent
B	20.6 percent
C	10.9 percent
D	25.9 percent

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Enhancement and depletion modes
D	Saturation and cutoff

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A steady DC voltage
B	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	A digital mixer
B	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C	An analog mixer
D	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	Zero
C	180 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive bandwidth
B	Insufficient bandwidth
C	Frequency drift
D	Insufficient audio

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	Local oscillator
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	RF input
D	Image frequency

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:4
B	2:1
C	4:1
D	1:2

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	11 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Larger-diameter elements
D	Tapered-diameter elements

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization