US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
B	It heats body tissue
C	It cools body tissue
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
D	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	1200 baud
D	300 baud

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
C	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
D	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Single phase modulation
C	Double sideband
D	Frequency modulation

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
B	QSOs in progress have priority
C	Nets have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Repeat everything twice
C	Change frequency
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	425 Hz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Select	Answer
A	High levels of atmospheric noise or static
B	World-wide propagation during daylight hours
C	Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D	Poor propagation at any time of day

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The long path azimuth of a distant station
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To increase overall efficiency
B	To prevent excessive drive
C	To reduce harmonic radiation
D	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	Clearly audible speech
C	Distorted speech
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	15 dB
B	12 dB
C	18 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	The solar panel must have a charge controller
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
D	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 watts
B	60 watts
C	24 watts
D	6 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	120 volts
B	40 volts
C	25.5 volts
D	360 volts

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Inexpensive RF capacitor
B	Much less leakage than any other type
C	High capacitance for a given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward biased
B	Reverse biased
C	At the Zener voltage
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To keep the carrier on frequency
B	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	IF amplifier
B	Filter
C	Carrier oscillator
D	RF amplifier

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Frequency modulation
C	Power modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Second harmonics
B	Intercept point
C	Even-order
D	Odd-order

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Header
C	Preamble
D	Trailer

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:4
C	1:2
D	4:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	24 feet
C	16 feet
D	33 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
C	Approximately 6 dB higher
D	Approximately 3 dB higher

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1