US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
B	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
C	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the hot wires
C	Only the neutral wire
D	Only the ground wire

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
B	All these choices are correct
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	1200 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 4
C	Region 1
D	Region 2

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Nets have priority
D	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	I have received and understood

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To follow standard radiogram structure
B	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To be sure the contact will count for award programs

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	CW
D	USB

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	Time of day and season
C	All these choices are correct
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The F2 region
C	The D region
D	The E region

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
C	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
D	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	An oscilloscope uses less power
C	Complex waveforms can be measured
D	Complex impedances can be easily measured

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Forward-biased diode
B	Bypass inductor
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Reverse-biased diode

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times less powerful
D	It is 20 times more powerful

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	6 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	144 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	It becomes capacitive
B	Harmonics are generated
C	Its reactance increases
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Low power consumption
B	Better suited for RF amplification
C	Better suited for power supply regulation
D	High power handling capability

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 5
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	6
C	16
D	3

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Relatively high-power output
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Extremely narrow tuning range

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase transformation
C	Phase convolution
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To prevent overmodulation
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Request retransmission of the packet
B	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
C	Entire file received correctly
D	Packet was received without error

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
C	They are all the same length
D	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1