US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The total time of the exposure
B	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
C	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
D	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	All HF bands
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
B	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
C	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
D	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C11

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

Select	Answer
A	PEP output from the transmitter
B	RMS input to the antenna
C	PEP input to the antenna
D	RMS output from the transmitter

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Double sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	100 percent copy
B	Chirpy or unstable signal
C	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
D	Key clicks

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	850 Hz
B	85 Hz
C	425 Hz
D	170 Hz

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
B	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	The D region
B	The E region
C	The F1 region
D	The F2 region

16. - G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
B	To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
C	To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
D	To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
B	Corrosion of the ground rod
C	A ground loop
D	Overheating of ground straps

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
B	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The peak value
C	The RMS value
D	The peak-to-peak value

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Mutual capacitance
C	Mutual inductance
D	Capacitive coupling

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Catastrophic failure is likely
B	It becomes capacitive
C	Harmonics are generated
D	Its reactance increases

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	Its conductivity
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Transformers and transducers
C	Capacitors and inductors
D	Diodes

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

Select	Answer
A	An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
B	A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
C	An analog mixer
D	A digital mixer

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
C	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency conversion
B	Frequency transformation
C	Frequency convolution
D	Frequency modulation

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

Select	Answer
A	3F1-F2
B	5F1-3F2
C	2F1-F2
D	All these choices are correct

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Upper case letters are sent with more power
C	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
D	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	8 feet
C	33 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Inverted V
B	Sloper
C	Inverted L
D	Lazy H