US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
B	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Select	Answer
A	RF exposure limits of the human body
B	Acceptable modulation limits
C	Electrical safety of the station
D	Acceptable bandwidth limits

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

Select	Answer
A	20 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	10 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
C	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
D	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
C	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
D	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
B	Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
C	Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any stations outside the lower 48 states
B	Only stations in Germany
C	Only contest stations
D	Any caller is welcome to respond

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I have received and understood
B	Send slower
C	We have already confirmed the contact
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
C	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
D	To follow standard radiogram structure

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
B	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
C	Always call on the station’s frequency
D	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	28 days
B	15 hours to several days
C	14 days
D	4 to 8 minutes

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All these choices are correct
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Signals have a fluttering sound
B	Phone signals have high intelligibility
C	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
D	Scatter propagation occurs only at night

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A pronounced peak
B	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
C	No change will be observed
D	A pronounced dip

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Power output from a transmitter
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Bypass inductor
B	Reverse-biased diode
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass capacitor

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
D	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	2.4 watts
C	6 watts
D	24 watts

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	300 microfarads
B	0.33 microfarads
C	33.3 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type-S to type-M adaptor
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
B	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
C	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
D	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Image response
B	Intermediate interference
C	Mixer interference
D	Quadrature response

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Upper case letters are sent with more power
B	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
C	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
D	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	263 feet
B	132 feet
C	42 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 9 dB higher
B	Approximately 6 dB higher
C	Approximately 3 dB higher
D	Approximately 1.5 dB higher

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground