US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	Next to the closest power pole
C	As close to the station equipment as possible
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
D	All HF bands

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	They are not permitted
C	Only “Q” signals are permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP
B	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
C	10 watts RMS
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

Select	Answer
A	At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
B	At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
C	At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
D	At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
B	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
D	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am troubled by static
B	Send more slowly
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
B	Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
C	All these choices are correct
D	Submit a log to the contest sponsor

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
B	A special hardware modem
C	A vertically polarized antenna
D	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
D	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
B	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
C	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because of temperature inversions
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because it is the densest
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
D	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of frequency modulation
B	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C	Percentage of carrier phase shift
D	Linearity

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
C	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	353.5 watts
B	100 watts
C	400 watts
D	1.4 watts

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	25.5 volts
C	120 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	High stability
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	BNC
B	PL-259
C	Type N
D	RCA Phono

26. - G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	270 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	180 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	16
D	8

28. - G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation
B	Detection
C	All these choices are correct
D	Filtering

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

Select	Answer
A	By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B	By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
C	By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
D	By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Balanced converter
C	Multiplier
D	Mixer

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
B	A code using error detection and correction
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
B	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
C	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
B	All these choices are correct
C	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D	It does not require any inductors or capacitors

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By deploying a capacitance hat
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By varying its body capacitance