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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

SelectAnswer
AUse an FCC-approved band-pass filter
BContact the FCC for permission to transmit
CPerform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
DPerform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

SelectAnswer
AParallel to the water supply line
BNext to the closest power pole
CAs close to the station equipment as possible
DOutside the building

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

SelectAnswer
A30 meters
B12 meters
C11 meters
D60 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

SelectAnswer
A250 feet
B50 feet
C200 feet
D100 feet

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A300 baud
B19.6 kilobaud
C1200 baud
D56 kilobaud

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

SelectAnswer
AA US operator/primary station license
BA license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
COnly an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
DOnly a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

SelectAnswer
A100 watts
B10 watts
C100 milliwatts
D1500 watts

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

SelectAnswer
ASay “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
BSay your call sign once
CSay “Breaker Breaker”
DSay “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

SelectAnswer
ANo more than 2 hours per week
BNo more than 1 hour per month
CNo more than 1 hour per week
DNo more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

SelectAnswer
AChange frequency
BRepeat everything twice
CIncrease your power
DSend slower

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

SelectAnswer
ASay “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
BRepeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
CSign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
DTransmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

SelectAnswer
AA radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
BA DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
CA low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
DA digital protocol used with Winlink

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

SelectAnswer
AAt any point
BAt the summer solstice
COnly at the maximum point
DOnly at the minimum point

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

SelectAnswer
A12,000 miles
B1,200 miles
C2,500 miles
D180 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

SelectAnswer
AThe F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
BThe F region is unstable during daylight hours
CThe D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
DThe E region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

SelectAnswer
AA pronounced peak
BA pronounced dip
CA slow, rhythmic oscillation
DNo change will be observed

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA sidetone monitor
BA wavemeter
CAn oscilloscope
DA field strength meter

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

SelectAnswer
ABond equipment enclosures together
BConnect all ground conductors in series
CConnect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
DAvoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
BAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
CAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
DAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

SelectAnswer
ATo the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
BTo the battery using heavy-gauge wire
CTo the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
DTo the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

SelectAnswer
A3200 watts
B400 watts
C0.5 watts
D200 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AThe input voltage is divided by 4
BAdditional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
CThe input voltage is multiplied by 4
DAdditional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

SelectAnswer
AScreen grid
BTrigger electrode
CControl grid
DSuppressor grid

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AProgrammable Logic
BMMIC
CDigital
DAnalog

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

SelectAnswer
ADiodes
BAll these choices are correct
CCapacitors and inductors
DTransformers and transducers

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SelectAnswer
ASSB
BAM
CFM
DAll these choices are correct

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

SelectAnswer
ATo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
BTo minimize transmitter power output
CTo reduce power supply ripple
DTo minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
BBy keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
CBy using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
DBy changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

SelectAnswer
AThe ratio
BThe sum and difference
CThe arithmetic product
DThe average

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

SelectAnswer
AThe checksum overflows
BPackets will be routed incorrectly
CEncoding reverts to the default character set
DThe connection is dropped

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
BHigher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
CHigher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
DHigher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

SelectAnswer
AIt steadily decreases
BIt steadily increases
CIt is unaffected by the location of the feed point
DIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
BThe number of directors versus the number of reflectors
CThe relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
DThe ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

SelectAnswer
AIt allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
BIt narrows the main lobe in azimuth
CIt allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
DIt narrows the main lobe in elevation