US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	By calculation based on computer modeling
B	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
C	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D	All these choices are correct

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	Where the feed lines enter the building
B	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
C	At the closest power pole ground electrode
D	In series with each ground lead

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	60 meters
D	11 meters

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
D	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	2000 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Only those of the FCC
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Upper sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	Key clicks
C	100 percent copy
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Select	Answer
A	RJ-45
B	Terminal Node Controller
C	Gateway
D	Printer/Server

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters and 40 meters
B	80 meters and 160 meters
C	15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
D	30 meters and 20 meters

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	180 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
B	To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
C	To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D	To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
B	It improves the resolution of the readings
C	It improves the frequency response
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Forward-biased diode
C	Bypass capacitor
D	Bypass inductor

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic radiation may increase
B	Q of the antenna will be very low
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 61 watts
B	Approximately 11 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Much less leakage than any other type
B	High capacitance for a given volume
C	Inexpensive RF capacitor
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ferrites expel magnetic fields
B	By creating an impedance in the current’s path
C	By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
D	It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
B	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	FM
B	All these choices are correct
C	SSB
D	AM

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Cutoff and rolloff
B	Upper and lower half-power
C	Pole and zero
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
B	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
C	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	416.7 Hz
C	101.75 Hz
D	5 kHz

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	FT8, FT4, and FST4

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
B	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B	Approximately 3 dB higher
C	Approximately 9 dB higher
D	Approximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies