US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
C	All these choices are correct
D	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	200 feet
C	100 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	General and Technician
C	Technician only
D	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 2
C	Region 4
D	Region 1

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
B	Only a RACES net control operator
C	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	2,500 miles
C	1,200 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

Select	Answer
A	A slow, rhythmic oscillation
B	No change will be observed
C	A pronounced dip
D	A pronounced peak

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The transmitter balanced mixer output
D	The local oscillator of the transmitter

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It prevents signal overload
C	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
D	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
D	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.02 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	1.38 VDC
D	0.2 VDC

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reactance
C	Reluctance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 61 milliwatts
C	Approximately 61 watts
D	Approximately 11 watts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	3.5 to 1
D	144 to 1

24. - G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics are generated
B	Its reactance increases
C	It becomes capacitive
D	Catastrophic failure is likely

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A low noise figure VHF connector
D	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It eliminates ground loop current
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
C	The number of stages in the divider
D	The time delay of the lag circuit

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Pulse modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

Select	Answer
A	Encoding reverts to the default character set
B	The connection is dropped
C	The checksum overflows
D	Packets will be routed incorrectly

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Ohms per 100 feet
B	Ohms per 1,000 feet
C	Decibels per 1,000 feet
D	Decibels per 100 feet

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
B	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/4 wavelength
B	3/4 wavelength
C	1/2 wavelength
D	1 wavelength

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

Select	Answer
A	They must be used with an antenna tuner
B	They must be fed with open wire line
C	They present low impedance on all design frequencies
D	They have poor harmonic rejection