US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
D	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
B	Overvoltage on the hot wires
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	24900 kHz
C	18155 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	Only “Q” signals are permitted
B	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
C	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
D	They are not permitted

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	10 watts RMS
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	21 years
C	18 years
D	16 years

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
C	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
D	No third-party traffic may be transmitted

8. - G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna inductance or capacitance
B	Transmit audio or microphone gain
C	RF clipping level
D	Attenuator level

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

Select	Answer
A	Sending without error
B	Matching the speed of the transmitting station
C	Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
D	Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows accurate land masses
D	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
B	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
C	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
D	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

13. - G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

Select	Answer
A	A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B	A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
C	A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
D	Ripples in the geomagnetic force

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	RF interference
B	Antenna front-to-back ratio
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	Severely distorted audio
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 10 times less powerful
B	It is 100 times more powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	X
B	Y
C	Z
D	B

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1060 watts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
C	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulated RF
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Double-sideband modulated RF
D	Audio extracted from the modulation signal

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Vestigial sideband
D	Phase modulation

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance modulator
B	Balanced converter
C	Mixer
D	Multiplier

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By transmitting redundant information with the data
C	By using the Varicode character set
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	132 feet
C	42 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1