US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation

2. - G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

Select	Answer
A	AWG number 12
B	AWG number 8
C	AWG number 16
D	AWG number 20

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
B	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
C	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	56 kilobaud
C	300 baud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	10 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	1500 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	Approximately 6 kHz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	150 Hz to 500 Hz

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	I am troubled by static
C	Zero beat my signal
D	Stop sending

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	DSB
C	USB
D	SSB

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce long delayed echoes
B	Improve HF long path propagation
C	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	180 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	1,200 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter
B	Faraday rotation
C	Chordal hop
D	Short-path

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may become unstable
C	CW signals may become severely attenuated
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
C	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Select	Answer
A	Bond equipment enclosures together
B	Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C	Connect all ground conductors in series
D	Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 100 times more powerful
B	It is 20 times less powerful
C	It is 20 times more powerful
D	It is 10 times less powerful

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To lower the radiation angle
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	200 watts
C	400 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C	To accommodate the higher current of the primary
D	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Suppressor grid
D	Control grid

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	Fewer circuit components are required
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
B	An amplifier and a divider
C	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
D	A frequency multiplier and a mixer

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Select	Answer
A	Heterodyning
B	Frequency inversion
C	Phase inversion
D	Synthesizing

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	AMTOR
B	MFSK32
C	FT8
D	MSK144

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Select	Answer
A	Decibels per 1,000 feet
B	Ohms per 1,000 feet
C	Decibels per 100 feet
D	Ohms per 100 feet

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the height above ground

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Closer element spacing
B	Tapered-diameter elements
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 50 ohms
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Very high