US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
B	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	Parallel to the water supply line
C	Outside the building
D	As close to the station equipment as possible

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	300 baud
C	19.6 kilobaud
D	1200 baud

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	Only a RACES net control operator
D	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	There is interference on the frequency
C	I am ready to receive
D	You are sending too fast

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
C	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	425 Hz
B	850 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	85 Hz

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
B	The position of the Moon in its orbit
C	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
D	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Path distance and location
B	All these choices are correct
C	Time of day and season
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B	By clipping noise peaks
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An oscilloscope
B	An ammeter
C	An ohmmeter
D	A signal generator

18. - G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
B	It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
C	It prevents signal overload
D	It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
D	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	“Picket fencing”
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
B	Resonance causes impedance to be very high
C	Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
D	Resonance causes impedance to be very low

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.00
B	1.414
C	2.00
D	0.707

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	An inductor in parallel
D	A capacitor in series

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To increase the control grid resistance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

Select	Answer
A	A nickel plated version of the PL-259
B	A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
C	A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
D	A low noise figure VHF connector

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 2

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	16
D	8

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Zero
B	180 degrees
C	90 degrees
D	45 degrees

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
C	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
D	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
C	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
B	Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
C	Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
D	Upper case letters are sent with more power

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	33 feet
B	16 feet
C	8 feet
D	24 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

Select	Answer
A	In the plane of the loop
B	Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
C	Broadside and in the plane of the loop
D	Broadside to the loop

Figure G7-1