US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	On the antenna, opposite the feed point
B	Where the feed lines enter the building
C	In series with each ground lead
D	At the closest power pole ground electrode

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	14250 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic identification of repeaters
B	All these choices are correct
C	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
D	Observation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C09

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
B	10 watts RMS
C	1500 watts PEP
D	ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

6. - G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Select	Answer
A	Only those of the FCC
B	Only those of the remote station’s country
C	Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
D	Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	No part
B	Channels 42 through 45
C	Channels 1 through 4
D	Anywhere in the band

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Single sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single phase modulation
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
B	Only digital contacts
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
B	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
C	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
D	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	USB
C	LSB
D	CW

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
B	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the critical frequency
B	Just below the MUF
C	Just above the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D	Double hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
B	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
C	All these choices are correct
D	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two swept frequency tones
C	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
D	Two non-harmonically related audio signals

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	2.00
B	1.414
C	1.00
D	0.707

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	144 to 1
B	24 to 1
C	12 to 1
D	3.5 to 1

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To decrease plate resistance
B	To increase the control grid resistance
C	To increase efficiency
D	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	Forward biased
B	At the Zener voltage
C	Reverse biased
D	In the tunnel-effect region

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It eliminates ground loop current
C	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To limit the modulation index
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D	To eliminate self-oscillations

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
C	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency modulation
B	Power modulation
C	Phase modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	To aid in tuning your transmitter
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Select	Answer
A	Entire file received correctly
B	Request retransmission of the packet
C	Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
D	Packet was received without error

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	1:1

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	24 feet
B	16 feet
C	33 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Resonant frequency is lower
B	Gain increases
C	Front-to-back ratio decreases
D	Beamwidth increases

35. - G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Select	Answer
A	Lazy H
B	Inverted V
C	Inverted L
D	Sloper