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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

SelectAnswer
AFile an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
BSecure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
CAll these choices are correct
DTake action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

SelectAnswer
AEnsure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
BAlways hold on to the tower with one hand
CAll these choices are correct
DConfirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
B60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
C80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

SelectAnswer
AAutomatic identification of repeaters
BTransmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
CAll these choices are correct
DObservation of propagation and reception

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A200 watts PEP output
B2000 watts PEP output
C1500 watts PEP output
D1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
AFor as long as your current license is valid
B180 days
C365 days
D30 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

SelectAnswer
AThe message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
BThey must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
CThey must be for other licensed amateurs
DThey must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

SelectAnswer
AIt occupies less bandwidth
BIt allows “hands free” operation
CIt provides more power output
DThe received signal is more natural sounding

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

SelectAnswer
A3 kHz to 6 kHz
B150 Hz to 500 Hz
C1 kHz to 3 kHz
D5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

SelectAnswer
A“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
B“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
C“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
D“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

SelectAnswer
AToward the north
BAlong the gray line
CToward the rising sun
D180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

SelectAnswer
AYou may have selected the wrong baud rate
BThe mark and space frequencies may be reversed
CYou may be listening on the wrong sideband
DAll these choices are correct

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

SelectAnswer
AThe solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
BThe short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
CThe short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
DThe relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

SelectAnswer
AUse a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
BCheck the A-index
CAll these choices are correct
DSend a series of dots and listen for echoes

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

SelectAnswer
ALong path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
BPropagation near the MUF
CShort distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
DDouble hop propagation near the LUF

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

SelectAnswer
AAutomatic transmit/receive switching
BComputer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
CTo allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
DAutomatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

SelectAnswer
AComplex waveforms can be measured
BGreater precision
CAn oscilloscope uses less power
DComplex impedances can be easily measured

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

SelectAnswer
APlace a ferrite choke on the cable
BConnect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
CAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
DGround the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

SelectAnswer
AIt is 20 times more powerful
BIt is 10 times less powerful
CIt is 20 times less powerful
DIt is 100 times more powerful

20. - G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BThe control computers
CThe fuel delivery system
DThe battery charging system

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
CAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 11 milliwatts
BApproximately 11 watts
CApproximately 61 milliwatts
DApproximately 61 watts

23. - G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A80 ohms
B5.9 ohms
C17 ohms
D0.17 ohms

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

SelectAnswer
AComparatively low cost
BHigh stability
CHigh capacitance for given volume
DTight tolerance

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

SelectAnswer
AA type-S to type-M adaptor
BA small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
CA type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
DA connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

SelectAnswer
A360 degrees
B270 degrees
C90 degrees
D180 degrees

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThe number of stages in the divider
BThe time delay of the lag circuit
CThe number of stages in the counter
DThe inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
APure sine wave output
BRelatively high-power output
CExtremely narrow tuning range
DVariable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe bandwidth of the modulated signal
BSpurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
CThe carrier frequency that contains the signal
DThe waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
BTo aid in tuning your transmitter
CTo prevent overmodulation
DSome modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

SelectAnswer
AReceiving station connected and ready for transmissions
BPacket was received without error
CEntire file received correctly
DRequest retransmission of the packet

32. - G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
BHigher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
CHigher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
DHigher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

SelectAnswer
AIt peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
BIt is unaffected by the location of the feed point
CIt steadily increases
DIt steadily decreases

34. - G9C09

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 3 dB higher
BApproximately 9 dB higher
CApproximately 1.5 dB higher
DApproximately 6 dB higher

35. - G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AGain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
BElement length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
CImpedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
DSWR varies periodically as a function of boom length