US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Anonymous User

US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

Logging in (or registering) will help the system to select questions that you need to focus on.

1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	Observation of propagation and reception
C	All these choices are correct
D	Automatic identification of repeaters

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	19.6 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	56 kilobaud

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
B	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
C	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
D	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party is not a US citizen
B	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
C	All these choices are correct
D	The third party is speaking in a language other than English

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
B	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
C	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
D	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Nets have priority
B	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
C	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
D	QSOs in progress have priority

10. - G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send more slowly
B	Stop sending
C	Zero beat my signal
D	I am troubled by static

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
B	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
C	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D	To provide emergency and public safety communications

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	LSB
B	USB
C	DSB
D	CW

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
B	Path distance and location
C	All these choices are correct
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	Automatic transmit/receive switching
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Gain of a directional antenna
D	Power output from a transmitter

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B	On-and-off humming or clicking
C	Clearly audible speech
D	Distorted speech

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
D	Operating bandwidth may be very limited

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
B	Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
C	Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
D	Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The reciprocal of the RMS value
D	The peak value

23. - G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

Select	Answer
A	To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
B	To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
C	To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
D	To accommodate the higher current of the primary

24. - G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Long life
B	Rapid recharge
C	High voltage
D	High discharge current

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	PL-259
B	BNC
C	RCA Phono
D	Type N

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 5
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 4

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	3
B	6
C	16
D	8

28. - G7C04

How is a product detector used?

Select	Answer
A	Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
B	Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
C	Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
D	Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
C	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
D	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	416.7 Hz
B	5 kHz
C	60 kHz
D	101.75 Hz

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	Dot and dash
C	High and low
D	On and off

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
B	5:1
C	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
D	1:1

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	21 feet
C	8 feet
D	11 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Polarization diversity
B	Harmonic suppression
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

Figure G7-1