US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	Unground the base of the tower

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
C	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
D	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

Select	Answer
A	A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
B	Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
C	Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
D	A US operator/primary station license

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Double sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 1 hour per month
D	No more than 2 hours per month

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
B	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
C	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
B	Another name for the American sunspot number
C	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
D	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They pass through the ionosphere

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The long path azimuth of a distant station
B	The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
C	The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D	The short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
C	By clipping noise peaks
D	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

17. - G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	When testing logic circuits
B	When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
C	When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
D	When high precision is desired

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	Severely distorted audio
D	On-and-off humming or clicking

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
B	Prevent distortion of voice signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Q of the antenna will be very low
B	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
C	Harmonic radiation may increase
D	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Conductance
C	Reactance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Displacement current coupling
B	Capacitive coupling
C	Mutual capacitance
D	Mutual inductance

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High stability
C	High capacitance for given volume
D	Tight tolerance

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
B	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
C	Its conductivity
D	Its thickness

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 6
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Extremely narrow tuning range
B	Pure sine wave output
C	Relatively high-power output
D	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	8-tone frequency shift keying
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplier
B	Balanced converter
C	Mixer
D	Reactance modulator

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	2.4 GHz
B	10.7 GHz
C	432 MHz
D	902 MHz

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation increases
B	Attenuation is independent of frequency
C	Attenuation decreases
D	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation

33. - G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

Select	Answer
A	It is unaffected by the height above ground
B	It steadily decreases
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Tapered-diameter elements
B	Closer element spacing
C	Loading coils in series with the element
D	Larger-diameter elements

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Figure G7-1