US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
B	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
C	The total time of the exposure
D	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

2. - G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

Select	Answer
A	They must be bonded together with all other grounds
B	They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
C	Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D	Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	All these choices are correct

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	50 feet
C	200 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
B	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
C	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
D	On any General or Technician class band segment

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
B	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Lower sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a RACES net control operator
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
B	Traffic relay procedure net operation
C	Remote piloted model control
D	Low-power transmit operation

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
B	Always call on the station’s frequency
C	Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
D	Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Select	Answer
A	Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
B	Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
C	Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
D	The position of the Moon in its orbit

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	12,000 miles
C	2,500 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	All these choices are correct
C	The ALC action distorts the signal
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna front-to-back ratio
B	RF interference
C	Radio wave propagation
D	Standing wave ratio

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It increases peak power
B	It reduces intermodulation distortion
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases average power

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
B	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Conductance
B	Reluctance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	245 volts
B	692 volts
C	173 volts
D	346 volts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in parallel
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Peak and valley current points
B	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	Enhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	Its conductivity
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 7
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
C	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
D	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Mixer interference
B	Quadrature response
C	Image response
D	Intermediate interference

31. - G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

Select	Answer
A	A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
B	A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C	A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D	A code using error detection and correction

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	16 feet
C	11 feet
D	21 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent out-of-band operation
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To notch spurious frequencies

Figure G7-1