US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All these choices are correct
C	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
D	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

2. - G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
C	Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
D	The generator must be insulated from ground

3. - G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

Select	Answer
A	The upper frequency portion
B	The lower frequency portion
C	The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D	The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	50 feet
B	100 feet
C	250 feet
D	200 feet

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Technician only
B	General and Technician
C	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
D	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 milliwatts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	150 Hz to 500 Hz
B	5 Hz to 50 Hz
C	1 kHz to 3 kHz
D	3 kHz to 6 kHz

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
C	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
B	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	All these choices are correct

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
B	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
C	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
D	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
B	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
C	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
D	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All these choices are correct
C	Path distance and location
D	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Double hop propagation near the LUF
C	Propagation near the MUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
B	Minimum SWR on the antenna
C	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
D	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

17. - G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Received power that interferes with SWR readings
C	Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
D	Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Distorted speech
C	All these choices are correct
D	Excessive background noise

20. - G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
B	To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
C	To increase the “Q” of the antenna
D	To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Farad
B	Ohm
C	Ampere
D	Siemens

22. - G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

Select	Answer
A	173 volts
B	245 volts
C	346 volts
D	692 volts

23. - G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	70 microfarads
B	1,000 microfarads
C	14.3 microfarads
D	0.07 microfarads

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	0.7 volts
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Inherently more stable
B	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
C	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
D	Fewer circuit components are required

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The number of stages in the counter
B	The time delay of the lag circuit
C	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
D	The number of stages in the divider

28. - G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Rolloff
C	Ultimate rejection
D	Notch depth

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase inversion
B	Phase modulation
C	Phase convolution
D	Phase transformation

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
B	It is required by FCC rules
C	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	263 feet
C	42 feet
D	84 feet

34. - G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Larger-diameter elements
B	Loading coils in series with the element
C	Tapered-diameter elements
D	Closer element spacing

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 50 ohms
B	Very low
C	Approximately 300 ohms
D	Very high