US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
C	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Overvoltage on the hot wires
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

Select	Answer
A	The entire band
B	The portion above 29.5 MHz
C	The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D	The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
B	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	50 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1500 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	There is no age limit
B	16 years
C	18 years
D	21 years

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	10 watts
C	100 watts
D	100 milliwatts

8. - G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Select	Answer
A	Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
C	Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
D	SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

9. - G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Select	Answer
A	Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B	Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
C	Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D	Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am ready to receive
B	I am quitting for the day
C	You are sending too fast
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	170 Hz
C	850 Hz
D	425 Hz

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	20 to 40 hours
B	8 minutes
C	28 days
D	1 to 2 hours

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent excessive drive
B	To increase overall efficiency
C	To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
D	To reduce harmonic radiation

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Gain of a directional antenna
B	Power output from a transmitter
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
B	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Impedance
C	Carrier suppression
D	Transmitter power output

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
B	A series resistor must be in place
C	The solar panel must have a charge controller
D	Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

21. - G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	A length of transmission line
B	A transformer
C	All these choices are correct
D	A Pi-network

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It equals the average of the branch currents

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	360 volts
B	25.5 volts
C	120 volts
D	40 volts

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
D	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Synchronous
C	Half-wave
D	Full-wave

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	90 degrees
C	Zero
D	180 degrees

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	Its encoding provides error correction

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It is required by FCC rules
D	It improves impedance matching of the antenna

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	10.7 GHz
B	2.4 GHz
C	902 MHz
D	432 MHz

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	2:1
B	1:4
C	1:2
D	4:1

33. - G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Lower feed point impedance
B	Shorter radials
C	Lower ground losses
D	Lower radiation resistance

34. - G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Beamwidth increases
B	Resonant frequency is lower
C	Gain increases
D	Front-to-back ratio decreases

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground