US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
B	All these choices are correct
C	Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
D	Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	All wires
B	Only the neutral wire
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the hot wires

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	100 feet
B	200 feet
C	50 feet
D	250 feet

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
B	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
C	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
D	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
D	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

7. - G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

Select	Answer
A	On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B	Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
C	Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
D	Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only SSTV contacts
D	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have already confirmed the contact
B	I have received and understood
C	We have worked before
D	Send slower

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
B	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
C	To follow standard radiogram structure
D	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Failure to establish a connection between stations
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	All these choices are correct

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

Select	Answer
A	VHF/UHF ducting is improved
B	VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
C	HF communication is improved
D	HF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	12,000 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum SWR on the antenna
B	Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
C	Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D	Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance of coaxial cable
B	Gain of a directional antenna
C	Power output from a transmitter
D	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	On-and-off humming or clicking
B	A chirpy CW signal
C	Severely distorted audio
D	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Distorted speech
C	Excess intermodulation products
D	Excessive background noise

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Ohm
C	Siemens
D	Farad

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
B	It equals the average of the branch currents
C	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

23. - G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	0.33 microfarads
B	33.3 microfarads
C	300 microfarads
D	3.0 microfarads

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	0.7 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
C	A type-S to type-M adaptor
D	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Synchronous
B	Half-wave
C	Full-wave bridge
D	Full-wave

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
C	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
D	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Insertion loss
B	Ultimate rejection
C	Q
D	Return loss

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Its encoding provides error correction
C	It is sideband sensitive
D	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Heterodyning
C	Rolloff
D	Intermodulation

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using the Varicode character set
B	By using a parity bit with each character
C	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
D	By transmitting redundant information with the data

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

Select	Answer
A	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B	The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
C	The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
D	The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

33. - G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

Select	Answer
A	If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
C	If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
D	Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The number of elements on the boom
C	The spacing of each element along the boom
D	The physical length of the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground