US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Select	Answer
A	Only the hot wires
B	All wires
C	Only the ground wire
D	Only the neutral wire

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
B	All HF bands
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
B	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1200 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
D	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
B	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
C	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
D	It is commonly accepted amateur practice

9. - G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz to 6 kHz
B	1 kHz to 3 kHz
C	150 Hz to 500 Hz
D	5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	I have received and understood
D	We have worked before

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

Select	Answer
A	85 Hz
B	425 Hz
C	170 Hz
D	850 Hz

13. - G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

Select	Answer
A	A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
B	Another name for the American sunspot number
C	A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
D	A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

14. - G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
B	HF communications over the path are enhanced
C	Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
D	Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
C	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A sidetone monitor
B	An oscilloscope
C	A field strength meter
D	A wavemeter

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Select	Answer
A	Corrosion of the ground rod
B	High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
C	Overheating of ground straps
D	A ground loop

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	15 dB
B	12 dB
C	18 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To lower the radiation angle
C	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
D	To reduce radiation resistance

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	B
C	Y
D	X

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts
B	3200 watts
C	400 watts
D	0.5 watts

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	10.750 nanofarads
B	1,733 picofarads
C	576.9 nanofarads
D	3,583 picofarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To increase the control grid resistance
D	To decrease plate resistance

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Better suited for power supply regulation
B	High power handling capability
C	Better suited for RF amplification
D	Low power consumption

26. - G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 6
B	Symbol 1
C	Symbol 4
D	Symbol 7

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	AM
B	All these choices are correct
C	FM
D	SSB

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Select	Answer
A	Pure sine wave output
B	Extremely narrow tuning range
C	Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
D	Relatively high-power output

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
D	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	To aid in tuning your transmitter
D	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	75 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
D	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Wide bandwidth
B	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C	Polarization diversity
D	Harmonic suppression

Figure G7-1