US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
B	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Parallel to the water supply line
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Outside the building
D	Next to the closest power pole

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	160 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	1200 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	All these choices are correct
C	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Frequency modulation
C	Single sideband
D	Single phase modulation

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	5 Hz to 50 Hz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	2 kHz to 3 kHz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Increase your power
B	Send slower
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Change frequency

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

Select	Answer
A	Toward the north
B	180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
C	Toward the rising sun
D	Along the gray line

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

Select	Answer
A	A vertically polarized antenna
B	A special hardware modem
C	Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
D	Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
D	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
B	They are refracted back to Earth
C	They pass through the ionosphere
D	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Phone signals have high intelligibility
B	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
C	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
D	Signals have a fluttering sound

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	CW signals may become severely attenuated
B	Received signals may become distorted
C	Received frequency may become unstable
D	Received frequency may shift several kHz

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Better for measuring computer circuits
B	Faster response
C	Less prone to overload
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
B	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
C	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
D	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Select	Answer
A	Excess intermodulation products
B	Distorted speech
C	All these choices are correct
D	Excessive background noise

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Admittance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The reciprocal of the RMS value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The peak value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	12 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	24 to 1

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Trigger electrode
B	Control grid
C	Suppressor grid
D	Screen grid

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Digital
B	MMIC
C	Programmable Logic
D	Analog

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	270 degrees
D	360 degrees

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	AM
C	SSB
D	FM

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
B	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
B	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
C	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
D	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Select	Answer
A	It is required by FCC rules
B	It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
C	It improves impedance matching of the antenna
D	It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
B	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
C	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	16 feet
B	33 feet
C	24 feet
D	8 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Approximately 300 ohms
C	Very high
D	Approximately 50 ohms