US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
B	A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
C	Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
D	High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
B	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
C	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
D	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B	All HF bands
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

Select	Answer
A	250 feet
B	100 feet
C	200 feet
D	50 feet

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Select	Answer
A	Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B	Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
C	Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
D	Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
B	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
C	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
D	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B	Say your call sign once
C	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
D	Say “Breaker Breaker”

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
B	Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
C	Decrease power and continue to transmit
D	Switch to the opposite sideband

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
B	100 percent copy
C	Key clicks
D	Chirpy or unstable signal

11. - G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

Select	Answer
A	The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
B	The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
C	To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
D	The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic

12. - G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	USB
D	SSB

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B	Reduce long delayed echoes
C	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
D	Improve HF long path propagation

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
B	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

Select	Answer
A	By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
B	By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
C	By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D	By clipping noise peaks

17. - G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Select	Answer
A	Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B	Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C	Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
D	Two swept frequency tones

18. - G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Select	Answer
A	Reverse-biased diode
B	Bypass capacitor
C	Forward-biased diode
D	Bypass inductor

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

Select	Answer
A	To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
B	To reduce radiation resistance
C	To lower the radiation angle
D	To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

21. - G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Reactance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
B	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
C	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
D	It equals the average of the branch currents

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in parallel
B	An inductor in series
C	A capacitor in series
D	A capacitor in parallel

24. - G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.7 volts
B	0.3 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	1.0 volts

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
B	Large values of inductance may be obtained
C	All these choices are correct
D	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D	A steady DC voltage

27. - G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Select	Answer
A	Output is low when either or both inputs are high
B	Output is low only when both inputs are high
C	Output is high when either or both inputs are low
D	Output is high only when both inputs are high

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Double-sideband modulated RF
B	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
C	Audio with equalized frequency response
D	Frequency modulated RF

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

Select	Answer
A	Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
B	It is sideband sensitive
C	Its encoding provides error correction
D	All these choices are correct

30. - G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Select	Answer
A	Quadrature response
B	Mixer interference
C	Intermediate interference
D	Image response

31. - G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

Select	Answer
A	432 MHz
B	902 MHz
C	2.4 GHz
D	10.7 GHz

32. - G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	4:1
B	1:4
C	1:2
D	2:1

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	132 feet
B	84 feet
C	42 feet
D	263 feet

34. - G9C10

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The spacing of each element along the boom
C	The physical length of the boom
D	The number of elements on the boom

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground