US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
B	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
C	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
D	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

Select	Answer
A	Next to the closest power pole
B	As close to the station equipment as possible
C	Parallel to the water supply line
D	Outside the building

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
B	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
D	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

4. - G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Select	Answer
A	Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
B	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
C	When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
D	Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	100 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1000 watts PEP output

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	18 years
B	There is no age limit
C	16 years
D	21 years

7. - G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Select	Answer
A	When messages are encrypted
B	When under automatic control
C	When messages are not encrypted
D	Under no circumstances

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per month
B	No more than 2 hours per week
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

Select	Answer
A	Chirpy or unstable signal
B	Key clicks
C	100 percent copy
D	Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
B	All these choices are correct
C	You may have selected the wrong baud rate
D	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
B	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The F region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
D	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received frequency may become unstable
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received signals may become distorted

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Select	Answer
A	Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
B	Linearity
C	Percentage of frequency modulation
D	Percentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	Bonding all equipment enclosures together
B	Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
C	Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
D	Using surge suppressor power outlets

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Impedance
B	Carrier suppression
C	Transmitter power output
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.2 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.5 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Z
C	X
D	Y

22. - G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

Select	Answer
A	1.414
B	1.00
C	0.707
D	2.00

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor could overheat
B	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
C	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
D	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	Its thickness
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Capacitors and inductors
C	All these choices are correct
D	Diodes

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

Select	Answer
A	16
B	8
C	6
D	3

28. - G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	RF amplifier
B	Carrier oscillator
C	Filter
D	IF amplifier

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
B	Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
C	Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
D	Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent overmodulation
B	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
C	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
D	To aid in tuning your transmitter

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
C	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
D	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
B	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
C	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
D	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	On the same side as the feed point
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo