US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

Select	Answer
A	It heats body tissue
B	It cools body tissue
C	It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
D	It causes radiation poisoning

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
C	Overvoltage on the hot wires
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	14250 kHz
B	18155 kHz
C	24900 kHz
D	21300 kHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
B	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
C	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
D	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license

7. - G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts
B	100 milliwatts
C	10 watts
D	100 watts

8. - G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Select	Answer
A	Say “Breaker Breaker”
B	Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
C	Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
D	Say your call sign once

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	2 kHz to 3 kHz
B	150 Hz to 500 Hz
C	5 Hz to 50 Hz
D	Approximately 6 kHz

10. - G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

Select	Answer
A	BK
B	AR
C	SK
D	KN

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
C	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
D	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	All these choices are correct
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
C	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
D	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	180 miles

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

Select	Answer
A	The F1 region
B	The D region
C	The F2 region
D	The E region

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
C	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Greater precision
B	Complex waveforms can be measured
C	Complex impedances can be easily measured
D	An oscilloscope uses less power

18. - G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Severely distorted audio
B	A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C	On-and-off humming or clicking
D	A chirpy CW signal

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	6 dB
B	18 dB
C	12 dB
D	15 dB

20. - G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B	Harmonic radiation may increase
C	Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D	Q of the antenna will be very low

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	Y
C	X
D	B

22. - G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

Select	Answer
A	60 watts
B	24 watts
C	6 watts
D	2.4 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 henries
B	0.30 henries
C	3.3 millihenries
D	30 millihenries

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
D	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	Type N
C	PL-259
D	BNC

26. - G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 1
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 11
D	Symbol 6

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
D	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power

28. - G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

Select	Answer
A	A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B	The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
C	Fewer digital components are required
D	Mixing products are greatly reduced

29. - G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Select	Answer
A	Insufficient bandwidth
B	Frequency drift
C	Insufficient audio
D	Excessive bandwidth

30. - G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

Select	Answer
A	To aid in tuning your transmitter
B	To prevent overmodulation
C	Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
D	To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
B	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
C	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
D	FT8, FT4, and FST4

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
C	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
D	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	21 feet
B	11 feet
C	8 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

35. - G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Very low
B	Very high
C	Approximately 50 ohms
D	Approximately 300 ohms

Figure G7-1