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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

SelectAnswer
AThe average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
BThe average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
CThe total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
DThe total time of the exposure

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

SelectAnswer
AAlways hold on to the tower with one hand
BConfirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
CEnsure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
DAll these choices are correct

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

SelectAnswer
AAmateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
BAmateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
CAmateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
DAmateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

SelectAnswer
AUnder no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
BAt any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
CAmateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
DOnly when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A56 kilobaud
B19.6 kilobaud
C1200 baud
D300 baud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

SelectAnswer
AThe Federal Communications Commission
BThe Universal Licensing System
CThe Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
DA Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
AThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
BThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
CNo third-party traffic may be transmitted
DThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

8. - G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
ASuppressed sideband
BUpper sideband
CLower sideband
DDouble sideband

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

SelectAnswer
AOnly contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
BOnly contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
COnly digital contacts
DOnly SSTV contacts

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
BThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
CAt the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
DAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

SelectAnswer
ATransmission using Quick Response Protocol
BTraffic relay procedure net operation
CLow-power transmit operation
DRemote piloted model control

12. - G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

SelectAnswer
AFind a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
BAlways call on the station’s frequency
CCall on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
DFind a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

SelectAnswer
AHF communication is disturbed
BVHF/UHF ducting is improved
CHF communication is improved
DVHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

SelectAnswer
A180 miles
B2,500 miles
C1,200 miles
D12,000 miles

15. - G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

SelectAnswer
AChordal hop
BFaraday rotation
CShort-path
DScatter

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

SelectAnswer
AALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
BAll these choices are correct
CThe ALC action distorts the signal
DWhen using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe local oscillator of the transmitter
BThe attenuated RF output of the transmitter
CThe transmitter balanced mixer output
DAn external RF oscillator

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

SelectAnswer
AAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
BGround the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
CPlace a ferrite choke on the cable
DConnect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases average power
BIt reduces harmonic distortion
CIt reduces intermodulation distortion
DIt increases peak power

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

SelectAnswer
AFull-wave bridge
BSeries-parallel
CShunt
DBypass

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
ACurrent and voltage are equal
BResistance is cancelled
CThe circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
DInductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

22. - G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

SelectAnswer
A34 volts
B8.5 volts
C24 volts
D12 volts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AThe input voltage is multiplied by 4
BAdditional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
CAdditional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
DThe input voltage is divided by 4

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction
BThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
CThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
DThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B10

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

SelectAnswer
AFerrites expel magnetic fields
BIt converts common-mode current to differential mode current
CBy creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
DBy creating an impedance in the current’s path

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage
BIt eliminates ground loop current
CIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
DIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SelectAnswer
ASSB
BAll these choices are correct
CFM
DAM

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

SelectAnswer
ATo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
BTo minimize transmitter power output
CTo reduce power supply ripple
DTo minimize radiation resistance

29. - G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BIts encoding provides error correction
CIts bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
DIt is sideband sensitive

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

SelectAnswer
A416.7 Hz
B5 kHz
C60 kHz
D101.75 Hz

31. - G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

SelectAnswer
ARequest retransmission of the packet
BReceiving station connected and ready for transmissions
CEntire file received correctly
DPacket was received without error

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

SelectAnswer
AAttenuation increases
BAttenuation is independent of frequency
CAttenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
DAttenuation decreases

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A84 feet
B132 feet
C42 feet
D263 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
BIt does not require any inductors or capacitors
CIt is useful for matching multiband antennas
DAll these choices are correct

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

SelectAnswer
ATo provide balanced feed point impedance
BTo notch spurious frequencies
CTo enable multiband operation
DTo prevent out-of-band operation