US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Select	Answer
A	Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B	Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
C	All these choices are correct
D	Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

2. - G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
C	Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
D	Overvoltage on the hot wires

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	60 meters
B	11 meters
C	30 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
B	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

5. - G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Select	Answer
A	200 watts PEP output
B	1000 watts PEP output
C	1500 watts PEP output
D	1200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	On any General or Technician class band segment
B	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Select	Answer
A	Anywhere in the band
B	No part
C	Channels 42 through 45
D	Channels 1 through 4

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Upper sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Select	Answer
A	Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
B	All these choices are correct
C	Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
D	Follow the voluntary band plan

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	I am ready to receive
D	There is interference on the frequency

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Select	Answer
A	Adam, Boy, Charles, David
B	Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
C	Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
D	America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

12. - G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
B	To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
C	To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
D	To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point
B	At the summer solstice
C	Only at the maximum point
D	At any point

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
B	A slightly delayed echo might be heard
C	Signal strength increased by 3 dB
D	Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Select	Answer
A	Because it is the densest
B	Because of the Doppler effect
C	Because of temperature inversions
D	Because it is the highest

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
B	Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
C	Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
D	All these choices are correct

17. - G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

Select	Answer
A	It improves the frequency response
B	It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
C	It improves the resolution of the readings
D	It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Series-parallel
C	Shunt
D	Bypass

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Siemens
B	Ampere
C	Farad
D	Ohm

22. - G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

Select	Answer
A	1060 watts
B	2120 watts
C	530 watts
D	1500 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	3.3 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	0.30 henries

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.3 volts
B	1.0 volts
C	0.1 volt
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
B	A type-S to type-M adaptor
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

26. - G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

Select	Answer
A	90 degrees
B	180 degrees
C	360 degrees
D	270 degrees

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
B	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
C	A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

28. - G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

Select	Answer
A	Q
B	Return loss
C	Insertion loss
D	Ultimate rejection

29. - G8A13

What is a link budget?

Select	Answer
A	The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
B	The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
C	The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
D	The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

30. - G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
B	Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
C	Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
D	Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

31. - G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK32
B	AMTOR
C	FT8
D	MSK144

32. - G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

Select	Answer
A	5:1
B	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
C	1:1
D	Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

Select	Answer
A	It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B	It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
C	It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D	It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

34. - G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

Select	Answer
A	The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
B	Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
C	The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
D	They are all the same length

35. - G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonic suppression
B	Polarization diversity
C	Wide bandwidth
D	Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna