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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

SelectAnswer
ABy calculation based on computer modeling
BBy measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
CAll these choices are correct
DBy calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

SelectAnswer
ANext to the closest power pole
BAs close to the station equipment as possible
CParallel to the water supply line
DOutside the building

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

SelectAnswer
A12 meters
B60 meters
C11 meters
D30 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

SelectAnswer
AOccasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
BEncrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
CUnidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
DAutomatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C08

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A56 kilobaud
B1200 baud
C300 baud
D19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

SelectAnswer
AThe Universal Licensing System
BThe Federal Communications Commission
CA Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
DThe Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be for other licensed amateurs
BThey must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
CThey must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
DThe message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
ALower sideband
BSuppressed sideband
CUpper sideband
DDouble sideband

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

SelectAnswer
AAlways use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
BAll these choices are correct
CTransmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
DHave a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

SelectAnswer
A100 percent copy
BChirpy or unstable signal
CKey clicks
DReport was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

SelectAnswer
AAmateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
BAmateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
CAmateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
DAmateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

SelectAnswer
AA low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
BA digital protocol used with Winlink
CA DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
DA radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

SelectAnswer
AIt disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
BIt disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
CNone, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
DIt enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BTime of day and season
CSolar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
DPath distance and location

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
BThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
CThe short path azimuth of a distant station
DThe long path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

SelectAnswer
AWhen using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
BALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
CThe ALC action distorts the signal
DAll these choices are correct

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe transmitter balanced mixer output
BThe attenuated RF output of the transmitter
CThe local oscillator of the transmitter
DAn external RF oscillator

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

SelectAnswer
AHigh RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
BA ground loop
CCorrosion of the ground rod
DOverheating of ground straps

19. - G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

SelectAnswer
AAt least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
BAt least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
CAt least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
DAt least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

20. - G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

SelectAnswer
AFull-wave bridge
BSeries-parallel
CBypass
DShunt

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

SelectAnswer
AThe circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
BCurrent and voltage are equal
CInductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
DResistance is cancelled

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

SelectAnswer
AIt equals the sum of the currents through each branch
BIt decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
CIt is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
DIt equals the average of the branch currents

23. - G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

SelectAnswer
AMutual inductance
BMutual capacitance
CCapacitive coupling
DDisplacement current coupling

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

SelectAnswer
AThe gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
BThe source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
CThe source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
DThe gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

SelectAnswer
AMost of the magnetic field is contained in the core
BThe magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
CAll these choices are correct
DLarge values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage
BIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils
CIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
DIt eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B06

What is a shift register?

SelectAnswer
AA clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
BAn array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
CAn analog mixer
DA digital mixer

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

SelectAnswer
ATo minimize transmitter power output
BTo minimize radiation resistance
CTo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
DTo reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
BBy reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
CBy keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
DBy using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

SelectAnswer
A101.75 Hz
B60 kHz
C416.7 Hz
D5 kHz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

SelectAnswer
ADirectory
BPreamble
CHeader
DTrailer

32. - G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

SelectAnswer
AThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
BThe radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
CThe frequency of the signal and the length of the line
DThe distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

33. - G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

SelectAnswer
AIt has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
BIt is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
CIt is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
DIt is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt does not require any inductors or capacitors
BIt does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
CIt is useful for matching multiband antennas
DAll these choices are correct

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
BA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
DA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground