US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
B	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
C	All these choices are correct
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
C	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
D	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
C	7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
D	28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
B	Only “Q” signals are permitted
C	They are not permitted
D	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

5. - G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts PEP output
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	1000 watts PEP output
D	100 watts PEP output

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
B	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

Select	Answer
A	The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
B	No third-party traffic may be transmitted
C	The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
D	The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
B	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

9. - G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Select	Answer
A	Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
B	Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
C	Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
D	All these choices are correct

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	There is interference on the frequency
B	I am quitting for the day
C	You are sending too fast
D	I am ready to receive

11. - G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
B	Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
C	Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
D	Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

12. - G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	DSB
B	LSB
C	USB
D	CW

13. - G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

Select	Answer
A	None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
B	It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C	It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
D	It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	Time of day and season
B	All these choices are correct
C	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D	Path distance and location

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
B	Propagation near the MUF
C	Double hop propagation near the LUF
D	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

16. - G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent key clicks on CW
B	To prevent transient overmodulation
C	To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
D	To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

17. - G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Select	Answer
A	Less prone to overload
B	Better for measuring computer circuits
C	Faster response
D	Higher precision

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitter power output
B	Carrier suppression
C	Impedance
D	Received signal strength

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	1.38 VDC
B	0.5 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	0.02 VDC

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and voltage
B	The product of current and reactance
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The ratio of voltage to current

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The reciprocal of the RMS value
C	The peak-to-peak value
D	The RMS value

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

Select	Answer
A	A capacitor in parallel
B	A capacitor in series
C	An inductor in parallel
D	An inductor in series

24. - G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

Select	Answer
A	0.1 volt
B	0.3 volts
C	1.0 volts
D	0.7 volts

25. - G6B11

What is an SMA connector?

Select	Answer
A	A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
B	A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
C	A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
D	A type-S to type-M adaptor

26. - G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Select	Answer
A	Transformers and transducers
B	Diodes
C	All these choices are correct
D	Capacitors and inductors

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
B	The number of stages in the divider
C	The time delay of the lag circuit
D	The number of stages in the counter

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
B	Frequency modulated RF
C	Double-sideband modulated RF
D	Audio with equalized frequency response

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	8-tone frequency shift keying
B	Amplitude compressed AM
C	Vestigial sideband
D	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Intermodulation
C	Heterodyning
D	Detection

31. - G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

Select	Answer
A	Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
B	WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
C	FT8, FT4, and FST4
D	DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
B	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
C	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
D	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	8 feet
B	21 feet
C	11 feet
D	16 feet

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It is useful for matching multiband antennas
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	All these choices are correct

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Broadside to the plane of the halo
B	Opposite the feed point
C	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
D	On the same side as the feed point