US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
C	By calculation based on computer modeling
D	By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Select	Answer
A	RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
B	Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
C	High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
D	Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

3. - G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

Select	Answer
A	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
B	160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
C	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
D	80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
B	Automatic identification of repeaters
C	Observation of propagation and reception
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1500 watts PEP output
B	200 watts PEP output
C	50 watts PEP output
D	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

6. - G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Select	Answer
A	Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
B	On any General or Technician class band segment
C	Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
D	On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 4
C	Region 3
D	Region 1

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Suppressed sideband
B	Lower sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Select	Answer
A	Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B	Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
C	A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D	Only a RACES net control operator

10. - G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

Select	Answer
A	I am quitting for the day
B	You are sending too fast
C	There is interference on the frequency
D	I am ready to receive

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

Select	Answer
A	A map that shows accurate land masses
B	A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C	A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
D	A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	Long pauses in message transmission
B	All these choices are correct
C	Frequent retries or timeouts
D	Failure to establish a connection between stations

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	1 to 2 hours
B	20 to 40 hours
C	8 minutes
D	28 days

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
B	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Double hop propagation near the LUF
B	Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
C	Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
D	Propagation near the MUF

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	The ALC action distorts the signal
C	All these choices are correct
D	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

17. - G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Select	Answer
A	An ohmmeter
B	An ammeter
C	A signal generator
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
B	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
C	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
B	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
C	Prevent distortion of voice signals
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reluctance
B	Conductance
C	Admittance
D	Reactance

22. - G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

Select	Answer
A	The peak value
B	The peak-to-peak value
C	The RMS value
D	The reciprocal of the RMS value

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
B	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Select	Answer
A	Comparatively low cost
B	High capacitance for given volume
C	Tight tolerance
D	High stability

25. - G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Select	Answer
A	Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
B	Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C	Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
D	Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

26. - G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 4
B	Symbol 11
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

Select	Answer
A	A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
B	A frequency multiplier and a mixer
C	A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
D	An amplifier and a divider

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Select	Answer
A	Audio extracted from the modulation signal
B	Audio with equalized frequency response
C	Frequency modulated RF
D	Double-sideband modulated RF

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B	The opposite of fade margin
C	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
D	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity

30. - G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Select	Answer
A	RF input
B	Beat frequency oscillator
C	Image frequency
D	Local oscillator

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Select	Answer
A	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
B	Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
C	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
D	Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
D	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	84 feet
B	132 feet
C	263 feet
D	42 feet

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
B	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
C	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
D	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

35. - G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Opposite the feed point
B	Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
C	On the same side as the feed point
D	Broadside to the plane of the halo

Figure G7-1