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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BBy calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
CBy calculation based on computer modeling
DBy measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

SelectAnswer
ATin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
BLead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
CHigh voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
DRF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

3. - G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
B7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
C28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
D21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

SelectAnswer
A21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
BOn any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
COn any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
D28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A56 kilobaud
B1200 baud
C300 baud
D19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

SelectAnswer
A365 days
BFor as long as your current license is valid
C30 days
D180 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

SelectAnswer
AThe message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
BThey must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
CThey must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
DThey must be for other licensed amateurs

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
AVery high-fidelity voice modulation
BEase of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
CLess subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
DLess bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

9. - G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

SelectAnswer
ASwitch to the opposite sideband
BDecrease power and continue to transmit
CAttempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
DAdvise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

SelectAnswer
AAn operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
BTransmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
CAutomatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
DBreaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

SelectAnswer
AAlong the gray line
BToward the north
CToward the rising sun
D180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

12. - G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

SelectAnswer
AReceiver attenuator set to -12 dB
BComputer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
CA special hardware modem
DA vertically polarized antenna

13. - G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

SelectAnswer
AVHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
BVHF/UHF ducting is improved
CHF communication is improved
DHF communication is disturbed

14. - G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

SelectAnswer
AWorld-wide propagation during daylight hours
BHigh levels of atmospheric noise or static
CPoor propagation at any time of day
DHeavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

15. - G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

SelectAnswer
ADouble hop propagation near the LUF
BLong path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
CPropagation near the MUF
DShort distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

16. - G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

SelectAnswer
ATo reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
BTo prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
CTo reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
DTo reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AGain of a directional antenna
BImpedance of coaxial cable
CPower output from a transmitter
DFront-to-back ratio of an antenna

18. - G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

SelectAnswer
AOverheating of ground straps
BA ground loop
CCorrosion of the ground rod
DHigh RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

19. - G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

SelectAnswer
ADistorted speech
BExcess intermodulation products
CAll these choices are correct
DExcessive background noise

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

SelectAnswer
A0.5 VDC
B0.02 VDC
C1.38 VDC
D0.2 VDC

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

SelectAnswer
AReinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
BOpposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
CReinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
DOpposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

SelectAnswer
A20.6 percent
B25.9 percent
C10.9 percent
D12.2 percent

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

SelectAnswer
A40 volts
B25.5 volts
C360 volts
D120 volts

24. - G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

SelectAnswer
AMuch less leakage than any other type
BTight tolerance
CHigh capacitance for a given volume
DInexpensive RF capacitor

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

SelectAnswer
ALow power consumption
BBetter suited for power supply regulation
CHigh power handling capability
DBetter suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils
BIt eliminates ground loop current
CIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
DIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage

27. - G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

SelectAnswer
AThe inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
BThe number of stages in the counter
CThe number of stages in the divider
DThe time delay of the lag circuit

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

SelectAnswer
AAudio extracted from the modulation signal
BAudio with equalized frequency response
CDouble-sideband modulated RF
DFrequency modulated RF

29. - G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

SelectAnswer
ABy using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
BBy keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
CBy reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
DBy changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

30. - G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

SelectAnswer
AIt is required by FCC rules
BIt improves impedance matching of the antenna
CIt results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
DIt minimizes power consumption in the receiver

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

SelectAnswer
ADirectory
BTrailer
CHeader
DPreamble

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
BThe feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
CThe feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
DThe antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A16 feet
B8 feet
C21 feet
D11 feet

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

SelectAnswer
AA 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
BA section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
CA series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
DA shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

SelectAnswer
ATo notch spurious frequencies
BTo prevent out-of-band operation
CTo enable multiband operation
DTo provide balanced feed point impedance