US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B	All these choices are correct
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

2. - G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

Select	Answer
A	To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
B	To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
C	To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
D	To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	12 meters
B	20 meters
C	30 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
D	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

5. - G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Select	Answer
A	Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
B	Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
C	Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
D	Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

6. - G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

Select	Answer
A	Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
B	Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
C	A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
D	Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

7. - G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
B	These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
C	These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
D	A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

8. - G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 2 hours per month
C	No more than 1 hour per week
D	No more than 1 hour per month

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

11. - G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Select	Answer
A	To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
B	To provide emergency and public safety communications
C	To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
D	To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

12. - G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
B	Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
C	Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
D	Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

13. - G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
B	A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
C	Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
D	A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

14. - G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

Select	Answer
A	2,500 miles
B	1,200 miles
C	180 miles
D	12,000 miles

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
B	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
C	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
D	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

16. - G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

Select	Answer
A	Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
B	Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
C	It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D	More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Select	Answer
A	Power output from a transmitter
B	Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
C	Impedance of coaxial cable
D	Gain of a directional antenna

18. - G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

Select	Answer
A	You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B	An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
C	You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
D	The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

19. - G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

Select	Answer
A	15 dB
B	18 dB
C	12 dB
D	6 dB

20. - G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

Select	Answer
A	To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
B	To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
C	To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
D	To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value

21. - G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Ampere
B	Farad
C	Siemens
D	Ohm

22. - G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

Select	Answer
A	339.4 volts
B	169.7 volts
C	84.8 volts
D	240.0 volts

23. - G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

Select	Answer
A	24 to 1
B	3.5 to 1
C	144 to 1
D	12 to 1

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

25. - G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Its thickness
B	The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
C	The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D	Its conductivity

26. - G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
B	A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
C	A steady DC voltage
D	A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

27. - G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
B	An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C	Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
D	A Class C high efficiency amplifier

28. - G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

Select	Answer
A	To minimize transmitter power output
B	To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
C	To minimize radiation resistance
D	To reduce power supply ripple

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Rolloff
B	Intermodulation
C	Detection
D	Heterodyning

31. - G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Select	Answer
A	More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
B	Having more nodes increases signal strengths
C	If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
D	Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
B	Attenuation decreases
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	As high as possible above the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	1/2 wavelength
B	1 wavelength
C	3/4 wavelength
D	1/4 wavelength

35. - G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

Select	Answer
A	It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
B	It narrows the main lobe in elevation
C	It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
D	It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization