US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

Select	Answer
A	A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
B	An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
C	A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
D	An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Unground the base of the tower
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

Select	Answer
A	All HF bands
B	All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
C	80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
D	60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

4. - G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
C	The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
D	No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
B	You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
C	You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
D	If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

6. - G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

Select	Answer
A	21 years
B	16 years
C	There is no age limit
D	18 years

7. - G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

Select	Answer
A	The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
B	All these choices are correct
C	The third party is speaking in a language other than English
D	The third party is not a US citizen

8. - G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	It is commonly accepted amateur practice
B	Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
C	Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
D	Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 1 hour per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 2 hours per week

10. - G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

Select	Answer
A	We have worked before
B	We have already confirmed the contact
C	I have received and understood
D	Send slower

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
B	To follow standard radiogram structure
C	To allow each station to operate according to conditions
D	To be sure the contact will count for award programs

12. - G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

Select	Answer
A	The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B	All these choices are correct
C	You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D	You may have selected the wrong baud rate

13. - G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B	The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
C	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
D	The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

14. - G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

Select	Answer
A	The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B	The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C	The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
D	The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

15. - G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Select	Answer
A	Scatter propagation occurs only at night
B	There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
C	Signals have a fluttering sound
D	Phone signals have high intelligibility

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
B	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
C	Automatic transmit/receive switching
D	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

17. - G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	A wavemeter
B	A field strength meter
C	A sidetone monitor
D	An oscilloscope

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground rod is resonant
B	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

19. - G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Prevent distortion of voice signals
B	Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C	Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
D	Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
B	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
C	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D	“Picket fencing”

21. - G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Select	Answer
A	Z
B	X
C	B
D	Y

22. - G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

Select	Answer
A	100 watts
B	353.5 watts
C	1.4 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

Select	Answer
A	The input voltage is multiplied by 4
B	Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
C	The input voltage is divided by 4
D	Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
B	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
C	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
D	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

Select	Answer
A	At the Zener voltage
B	Forward biased
C	In the tunnel-effect region
D	Reverse biased

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	Less than 50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	50%

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
B	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

29. - G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude compressed AM
B	8-tone frequency shift keying
C	8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
D	Vestigial sideband

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Intercept point
B	Even-order
C	Odd-order
D	Second harmonics

31. - G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

Select	Answer
A	By using a parity bit with each character
B	By using the Varicode character set
C	By transmitting redundant information with the data
D	By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

32. - G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	75 ohms
B	100 ohms
C	50 ohms
D	450 ohms

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Hemispherical
B	Omnidirectional in azimuth
C	Bi-directional in azimuth
D	Isotropic

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
B	The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C	The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
D	The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To prevent out-of-band operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To enable multiband operation