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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

SelectAnswer
AMake sure the antenna is properly shielded
BPosition the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
CLocate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
DMake sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

2. - G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

SelectAnswer
AOutside the building
BAs close to the station equipment as possible
CParallel to the water supply line
DNext to the closest power pole

3. - G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

SelectAnswer
A160 meters
B12 meters
C20 meters
D30 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

SelectAnswer
AThey are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
BOnly “Q” signals are permitted
CThey may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
DThey are not permitted

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

SelectAnswer
A50 watts PEP output
B1500 watts PEP output
CAn effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
D200 watts PEP output

6. - G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

SelectAnswer
AA US operator/primary station license
BA license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
COnly a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
DOnly an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

SelectAnswer
AWhen using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
BAll these choices are correct
CWhen a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
DWhen operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

SelectAnswer
AUpper sideband
BLower sideband
CSuppressed sideband
DDouble sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AQSOs in progress have priority
BExcept during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
CContest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
DNets have priority

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

SelectAnswer
AThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
BAt the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
CAt the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
DThe fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

SelectAnswer
AAmerica, Boston, Canada, Denmark
BAdam, Boy, Charles, David
CAlpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
DAble, Baker, Charlie, Dog

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

SelectAnswer
ASend QRL in Morse code
BTransmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
CRespond when the station broadcasts its SSID
DSend an email to the system control operator

13. - G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

SelectAnswer
A80 meters and 160 meters
B60 meters and 40 meters
C30 meters and 20 meters
D15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

SelectAnswer
AThey pass through the ionosphere
BThey are refracted back to Earth
CThey are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
DThey are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

15. - G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

SelectAnswer
AThe F1 region
BThe D region
CThe E region
DThe F2 region

16. - G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BReduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
CIncrease power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
DReduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

17. - G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

SelectAnswer
AGain of a directional antenna
BImpedance of coaxial cable
CPower output from a transmitter
DFront-to-back ratio of an antenna

18. - G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

SelectAnswer
AA steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
BOn-and-off humming or clicking
CClearly audible speech
DDistorted speech

19. - G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 8 times
BApproximately 1.5 times
CApproximately 4 times
DApproximately 2 times

20. - G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

SelectAnswer
AEnsure the battery is placed terminals-up
BA series resistor must be in place
CGround the solar panel outer metal framework
DThe solar panel must have a charge controller

21. - G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

SelectAnswer
AAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
BAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
CAs the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
DAs the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

SelectAnswer
A12.2 percent
B20.6 percent
C10.9 percent
D25.9 percent

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

SelectAnswer
A30 millihenries
B3.3 millihenries
C3.3 henries
D0.30 henries

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

SelectAnswer
ASaturation and cutoff
BThe active region (between cutoff and saturation)
CPeak and valley current points
DEnhancement and depletion modes

25. - G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

SelectAnswer
AReverse biased
BIn the tunnel-effect region
CForward biased
DAt the Zener voltage

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

SelectAnswer
AIt removes shock hazards from the induction coils
BIt acts as a fuse for excess voltage
CIt discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
DIt eliminates ground loop current

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

SelectAnswer
A8
B6
C3
D16

28. - G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency modulated RF
BDouble-sideband modulated RF
CAudio with equalized frequency response
DAudio extracted from the modulation signal

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

SelectAnswer
APhase modulation
BMultiplex modulation
CPulse modulation
DAmplitude modulation

30. - G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AOdd-order
BSecond harmonics
CIntercept point
DEven-order

31. - G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
BFrequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
CFrequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
DFrequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

SelectAnswer
AOperating an antenna at its resonant frequency
BUsing more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
CFeeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
DA difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

33. - G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIsotropic
BOmnidirectional in azimuth
CHemispherical
DBi-directional in azimuth

34. - G9C07

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
BThe number of directors versus the number of reflectors
CThe power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
DThe ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

SelectAnswer
AA horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
BA horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
CA vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
DA vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground