US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

Select	Answer
A	The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
B	The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C	The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
D	The total time of the exposure

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B	All these choices are correct
C	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
D	Unground the base of the tower

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	17 meters
C	12 meters
D	160 meters

4. - G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Select	Answer
A	They are not permitted
B	They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C	They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
D	Only “Q” signals are permitted

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	2.8 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	1.8 kHz

6. - G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

Select	Answer
A	30 days
B	180 days
C	For as long as your current license is valid
D	365 days

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must be for other licensed amateurs
C	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
D	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

Select	Answer
A	Any caller is welcome to respond
B	Only contest stations
C	Only stations in Germany
D	Any stations outside the lower 48 states

9. - G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Select	Answer
A	Only digital contacts
B	Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C	Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
D	Only SSTV contacts

10. - G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

Select	Answer
A	Send slower
B	Change frequency
C	Repeat everything twice
D	Increase your power

11. - G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Select	Answer
A	Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B	Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C	Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
D	Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Failure to establish a connection between stations
C	Long pauses in message transmission
D	Frequent retries or timeouts

13. - G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Select	Answer
A	8 minutes
B	28 days
C	1 to 2 hours
D	20 to 40 hours

14. - G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

Select	Answer
A	1,200 miles
B	180 miles
C	12,000 miles
D	2,500 miles

15. - G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is unstable during daylight hours
B	The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
C	The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D	The F region is unstable during daylight hours

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	Received frequency may shift several kHz
C	Received frequency may become unstable
D	CW signals may become severely attenuated

17. - G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

Select	Answer
A	The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
B	An external RF oscillator
C	The local oscillator of the transmitter
D	The transmitter balanced mixer output

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	The ground rod is resonant
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

Select	Answer
A	It is 20 times more powerful
B	It is 10 times less powerful
C	It is 100 times more powerful
D	It is 20 times less powerful

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
D	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

21. - G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Select	Answer
A	Susceptance
B	Reluctance
C	Conductance
D	Admittance

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	400 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	200 watts

23. - G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	3.3 millihenries
B	0.30 henries
C	30 millihenries
D	3.3 henries

24. - G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Select	Answer
A	Screen grid
B	Trigger electrode
C	Control grid
D	Suppressor grid

25. - G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
B	All these choices are correct
C	The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
D	Large values of inductance may be obtained

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 11
B	Symbol 7
C	Symbol 2
D	Symbol 1

27. - G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	Class C
B	Class B
C	Class AB
D	Class A

28. - G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Pole and zero
B	Upper and lower half-power
C	Cutoff and rolloff
D	Image and harmonic

29. - G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
B	Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
C	Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
D	The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Intermodulation
B	Heterodyning
C	Rolloff
D	Detection

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Preamble
B	Trailer
C	Directory
D	Header

32. - G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
B	The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C	The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
D	The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential

33. - G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	Station equipment may carry significant RF current
B	It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
C	It produces only vertically polarized radiation
D	It must be longer than 1 wavelength

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
B	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
C	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

35. - G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
B	Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
C	Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
D	Directional transmitting for low HF bands

Figure G7-1