US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
B	Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
C	Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
D	Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

2. - G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Select	Answer
A	15 amperes
B	30 amperes
C	20 amperes
D	25 amperes

3. - G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	11 meters
C	60 meters
D	12 meters

4. - G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

Select	Answer
A	28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
B	On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
C	21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D	On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	3 kHz
B	5.6 kHz
C	1.8 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
D	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

7. - G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

Select	Answer
A	When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
B	When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
C	All these choices are correct
D	When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Suppressed sideband
C	Upper sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Inform your local emergency coordinator
C	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
D	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
D	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”

11. - G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

Select	Answer
A	To be sure the contact will count for award programs
B	To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
C	To follow standard radiogram structure
D	To allow each station to operate according to conditions

12. - G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Frequent retries or timeouts
C	Failure to establish a connection between stations
D	Long pauses in message transmission

13. - G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Select	Answer
A	Reduce long delayed echoes
B	Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
C	Improve HF long path propagation
D	Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

14. - G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

Select	Answer
A	They pass through the ionosphere
B	They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
C	They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D	They are refracted back to Earth

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
C	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

Select	Answer
A	When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
B	ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
C	All these choices are correct
D	The ALC action distorts the signal

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex waveforms can be measured
B	Complex impedances can be easily measured
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Greater precision

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
B	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground rod is resonant

19. - G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	It reduces intermodulation distortion
B	It increases average power
C	It reduces harmonic distortion
D	It increases peak power

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
B	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
D	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

21. - G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Resistance is cancelled
B	The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
C	Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
D	Current and voltage are equal

22. - G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

Select	Answer
A	3200 watts
B	200 watts
C	0.5 watts
D	400 watts

23. - G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

Select	Answer
A	7 millihenries
B	70 millihenries
C	1,000 millihenries
D	14.3 millihenries

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

Select	Answer
A	The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
B	The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
C	The resistor could overheat
D	The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	Type N
B	RCA Phono
C	BNC
D	PL-259

26. - G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Select	Answer
A	Fewer circuit components are required
B	Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
C	High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D	Inherently more stable

27. - G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

Select	Answer
A	50%
B	100%
C	More than 50% but less than 100%
D	Less than 50%

28. - G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Input amplifier gain
C	Input amplifier noise figure
D	Demodulator stage bandwidth

29. - G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Select	Answer
A	Multiplex modulation
B	Phase modulation
C	Pulse modulation
D	Amplitude modulation

30. - G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Select	Answer
A	Detection
B	Intermodulation
C	Heterodyning
D	Rolloff

31. - G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Select	Answer
A	Mark and space
B	Dot and dash
C	High and low
D	On and off

32. - G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

Select	Answer
A	Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
B	Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C	A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D	Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
C	It steadily increases
D	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

34. - G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Select	Answer
A	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
B	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
C	Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
D	Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower

35. - G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

Select	Answer
A	To notch spurious frequencies
B	To enable multiband operation
C	To provide balanced feed point impedance
D	To prevent out-of-band operation