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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

SelectAnswer
APerform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
BPerform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
CUse an FCC-approved band-pass filter
DContact the FCC for permission to transmit

2. - G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

SelectAnswer
ALead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
BHigh voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
CRF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
DTin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit

3. - G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

SelectAnswer
AAll HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
B60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
CAll HF bands
D80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

SelectAnswer
AUnidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
BAutomatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
CEncrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
DOccasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

5. - G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

SelectAnswer
AIf you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
BYou must keep a record of all third-party traffic
CYou must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
DYou must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

SelectAnswer
AGeneral and Technician
BAmateur Extra, General, and Technician
CNone, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
DTechnician only

7. - G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

SelectAnswer
ANo third-party traffic may be transmitted
BThe station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
CThe control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
DThe interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

SelectAnswer
ALower sideband
BDouble sideband
CSuppressed sideband
DUpper sideband

9. - G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 6 kHz
B150 Hz to 500 Hz
C2 kHz to 3 kHz
D5 Hz to 50 Hz

10. - G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

SelectAnswer
AKey clicks
BChirpy or unstable signal
C100 percent copy
DReport was read from an S meter rather than estimated

11. - G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

SelectAnswer
AA map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
BA map that shows accurate land masses
CA map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
DA map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

12. - G2E02

What is VARA?

SelectAnswer
AA radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
BA digital protocol used with Winlink
CA DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
DA low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

13. - G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

SelectAnswer
ARotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
BThe position of the Moon in its orbit
CCyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
DLong term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

14. - G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

SelectAnswer
ASignal strength increased by 3 dB
BA slightly delayed echo might be heard
CThe signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
DPeriodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

15. - G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

SelectAnswer
AThe long path azimuth of a distant station
BThe lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
CThe highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
DThe short path azimuth of a distant station

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

SelectAnswer
ATo remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
BTo restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
CTo eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
DTo reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

17. - G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

SelectAnswer
ALinearity
BPercentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
CPercentage of frequency modulation
DPercentage of carrier phase shift

18. - G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

SelectAnswer
AConnect all ground conductors in series
BBond equipment enclosures together
CAvoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
DConnect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
B7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
C7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
D7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

SelectAnswer
ATo the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
BTo the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
CTo the battery using heavy-gauge wire
DTo the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire

21. - G5A02

What is reactance?

SelectAnswer
AOpposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
BReinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
CReinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
DOpposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

SelectAnswer
AApproximately 61 watts
BApproximately 11 watts
CApproximately 11 milliwatts
DApproximately 61 milliwatts

23. - G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

SelectAnswer
AA capacitor in parallel
BA capacitor in series
CAn inductor in series
DAn inductor in parallel

24. - G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
BThe resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
CThe resistor could overheat
DThe resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

25. - G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

SelectAnswer
AA moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
BA small bayonet connector used for data circuits
CA low noise figure VHF connector
DA nickel plated version of the PL-259

26. - G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

SelectAnswer
ASymbol 2
BSymbol 7
CSymbol 11
DSymbol 1

27. - G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

SelectAnswer
A6
B3
C8
D16

28. - G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

SelectAnswer
AExtremely narrow tuning range
BRelatively high-power output
CPure sine wave output
DVariable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

29. - G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

SelectAnswer
AModulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
BModulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
CModulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
DModulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

30. - G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

SelectAnswer
A5F1-3F2
B2F1-F2
C3F1-F2
DAll these choices are correct

31. - G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

SelectAnswer
AThe signal is 3 dB over S9
BThe signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
CThe signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
DThe signal is S3 (weak signals)

32. - G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

SelectAnswer
AOhms per 100 feet
BDecibels per 100 feet
CDecibels per 1,000 feet
DOhms per 1,000 feet

33. - G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A8 feet
B11 feet
C21 feet
D16 feet

34. - G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

SelectAnswer
A1/4 wavelength
B1 wavelength
C1/2 wavelength
D3/4 wavelength

35. - G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

SelectAnswer
AThey present low impedance on all design frequencies
BThey must be used with an antenna tuner
CThey must be fed with open wire line
DThey have poor harmonic rejection

Figure G7-1