US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Select	Answer
A	Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
B	All these choices are correct
C	File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
D	Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

2. - G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
B	Always hold on to the tower with one hand
C	Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
D	All these choices are correct

3. - G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
B	Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
C	Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
D	Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

4. - G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Select	Answer
A	Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
B	Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
C	Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
D	Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

5. - G1C10

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	56 kilobaud
B	1200 baud
C	300 baud
D	19.6 kilobaud

6. - G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

Select	Answer
A	The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
B	The Universal Licensing System
C	The Federal Communications Commission
D	A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

7. - G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

Select	Answer
A	They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
B	They must be for other licensed amateurs
C	The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
D	They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

8. - G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Select	Answer
A	Lower sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Suppressed sideband
D	Double sideband

9. - G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

Select	Answer
A	No more than 2 hours per week
B	No more than 1 hour per month
C	No more than 2 hours per month
D	No more than 1 hour per week

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
C	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
D	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power transmit operation
B	Remote piloted model control
C	Traffic relay procedure net operation
D	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Send an email to the system control operator
B	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
C	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
D	Send QRL in Morse code

13. - G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

Select	Answer
A	Only at the minimum point
B	Only at the maximum point
C	At the summer solstice
D	At any point

14. - G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
C	Path distance and location
D	Time of day and season

15. - G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

Select	Answer
A	The E region is not present
B	Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
C	Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
D	The ionospheric region involved is unstable

16. - G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

Select	Answer
A	To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
B	To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
C	To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D	To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Antenna and feed line
C	Transmitter
D	Receiver

18. - G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

Select	Answer
A	Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
B	Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C	A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D	All these choices are correct

19. - G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

Select	Answer
A	Received signal strength
B	Carrier suppression
C	Transmitter power output
D	Impedance

20. - G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

Select	Answer
A	The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B	Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
C	The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D	The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

21. - G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

Select	Answer
A	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B	As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
C	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D	As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

22. - G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

Select	Answer
A	It equals the average of the branch currents
B	It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
C	It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
D	It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

23. - G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

Select	Answer
A	1,733 picofarads
B	10.750 nanofarads
C	3,583 picofarads
D	576.9 nanofarads

24. - G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B	To increase efficiency
C	To decrease plate resistance
D	To increase the control grid resistance

25. - G6B12

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

Select	Answer
A	RCA Phono
B	Type N
C	BNC
D	PL-259

26. - G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Select	Answer
A	Full-wave bridge
B	Full-wave
C	Synchronous
D	Half-wave

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
B	Add the RF input power to the DC output power
C	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
D	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	45 degrees
B	Zero
C	180 degrees
D	90 degrees

29. - G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the modulated signal
B	The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
C	The carrier frequency that contains the signal
D	Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	5 kHz
B	60 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	MFSK16
B	WSPR
C	PSK31
D	SSB-SC

32. - G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

Select	Answer
A	1:5
B	5:1
C	1:2
D	2:1

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily increases
B	It steadily decreases
C	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C08

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

Select	Answer
A	The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
B	The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
C	The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
D	The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By deploying a capacitance hat
B	By varying its body capacitance
C	By extending and retracting the whip
D	By varying the base loading inductance