US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

Select	Answer
A	All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
B	Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
C	Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
D	All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

2. - G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
C	Unground the base of the tower
D	Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

3. - G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	24900 kHz
B	14250 kHz
C	21300 kHz
D	18155 kHz

4. - G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Select	Answer
A	At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
B	Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
C	Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
D	Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

5. - G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	1.8 kHz
B	3 kHz
C	5.6 kHz
D	2.8 kHz

6. - G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

Select	Answer
A	There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
B	They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
C	The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
D	Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 2
B	Region 3
C	Region 4
D	Region 1

8. - G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Select	Answer
A	Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
B	Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
C	Very high-fidelity voice modulation
D	Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

9. - G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Select	Answer
A	Immediately cease all transmissions
B	Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C	Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
D	Inform your local emergency coordinator

10. - G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Select	Answer
A	Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
B	Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C	Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
D	An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

11. - G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
C	Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
D	Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

12. - G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

Select	Answer
A	At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B	At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C	In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D	Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

13. - G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

Select	Answer
A	The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
B	The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
C	The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
D	The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field

14. - G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Just below the MUF
B	Just above the critical frequency
C	Just below the critical frequency
D	Just above the LUF

15. - G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Select	Answer
A	Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B	Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
C	Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
D	Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector

16. - G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Select	Answer
A	Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
B	To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
C	Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
D	Automatic transmit/receive switching

17. - G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

Select	Answer
A	Complex impedances can be easily measured
B	Greater precision
C	An oscilloscope uses less power
D	Complex waveforms can be measured

18. - G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Select	Answer
A	Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B	The ground rod is resonant
C	Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
D	The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

19. - G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
B	7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
C	7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
D	7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

20. - G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

Select	Answer
A	“Picket fencing”
B	Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
C	FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
D	The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

21. - G5A08

What is impedance?

Select	Answer
A	The product of current and voltage
B	The ratio of voltage to current
C	The ratio of current to voltage
D	The product of current and reactance

22. - G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 11 milliwatts
B	Approximately 11 watts
C	Approximately 61 milliwatts
D	Approximately 61 watts

23. - G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

Select	Answer
A	An inductor in series
B	A capacitor in parallel
C	A capacitor in series
D	An inductor in parallel

24. - G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

Select	Answer
A	The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
B	The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
C	The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
D	The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

25. - G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Analog
B	Digital
C	Programmable Logic
D	MMIC

26. - G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

Select	Answer
A	It eliminates ground loop current
B	It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
C	It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
D	It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

27. - G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Select	Answer
A	Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
B	Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
C	Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
D	Add the RF input power to the DC output power

28. - G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Select	Answer
A	180 degrees
B	Zero
C	45 degrees
D	90 degrees

29. - G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Select	Answer
A	Phase modulation
B	Phase inversion
C	Phase transformation
D	Phase convolution

30. - G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

Select	Answer
A	60 kHz
B	5 kHz
C	101.75 Hz
D	416.7 Hz

31. - G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Select	Answer
A	Directory
B	Preamble
C	Trailer
D	Header

32. - G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Select	Answer
A	Attenuation decreases
B	Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
C	Attenuation increases
D	Attenuation is independent of frequency

33. - G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

Select	Answer
A	At the center of the antenna
B	On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
C	Parallel to the antenna element
D	As high as possible above the ground

34. - G9C12

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
C	It does not require any inductors or capacitors
D	It is useful for matching multiband antennas

35. - G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
B	A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
C	A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
D	A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground