US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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US Amateur Radio - General (Element 3, 2023-2027) Practice Test

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1. - G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Select	Answer
A	Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
B	Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
C	Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
D	Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

2. - G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Select	Answer
A	In series with each ground lead
B	At the closest power pole ground electrode
C	Where the feed lines enter the building
D	On the antenna, opposite the feed point

3. - G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

Select	Answer
A	30 meters
B	12 meters
C	160 meters
D	17 meters

4. - G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Select	Answer
A	Observation of propagation and reception
B	Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
C	Automatic identification of repeaters
D	All these choices are correct

5. - G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

Select	Answer
A	An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
B	1500 watts PEP output
C	200 watts PEP output
D	50 watts PEP output

6. - G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

Select	Answer
A	Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
B	None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
C	Technician only
D	General and Technician

7. - G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Select	Answer
A	Region 3
B	Region 1
C	Region 2
D	Region 4

8. - G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Select	Answer
A	Double sideband
B	Upper sideband
C	Lower sideband
D	Suppressed sideband

9. - G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	QSOs in progress have priority
B	Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
C	Nets have priority
D	Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

10. - G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

Select	Answer
A	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B	At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
C	At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D	The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

11. - G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Select	Answer
A	Remote piloted model control
B	Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
C	Low-power transmit operation
D	Traffic relay procedure net operation

12. - G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Select	Answer
A	Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
B	Send an email to the system control operator
C	Send QRL in Morse code
D	Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

13. - G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Select	Answer
A	Improve high-latitude HF propagation
B	Improve ground wave propagation
C	Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
D	Degrade ground wave propagation

14. - G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Select	Answer
A	Check the A-index
B	All these choices are correct
C	Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
D	Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

15. - G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

Select	Answer
A	The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
B	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
C	The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
D	The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

16. - G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

Select	Answer
A	Received signals may become distorted
B	CW signals may become severely attenuated
C	Received frequency may shift several kHz
D	Received frequency may become unstable

17. - G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna and feed line
B	Transmitter
C	All these choices are correct
D	Receiver

18. - G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Select	Answer
A	Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
B	Place a ferrite choke on the cable
C	Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
D	Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

19. - G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

Select	Answer
A	At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
B	At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
C	At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
D	At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

20. - G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

Select	Answer
A	0.5 VDC
B	0.02 VDC
C	0.2 VDC
D	1.38 VDC

21. - G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Select	Answer
A	Reactance
B	Admittance
C	Conductance
D	Reluctance

22. - G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Select	Answer
A	Approximately 3 dB
B	Approximately 9 dB
C	Approximately 2 dB
D	Approximately 6 dB

23. - G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

Select	Answer
A	40 volts
B	120 volts
C	360 volts
D	25.5 volts

24. - G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Select	Answer
A	Enhancement and depletion modes
B	Peak and valley current points
C	Saturation and cutoff
D	The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

25. - G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Select	Answer
A	High power handling capability
B	Better suited for power supply regulation
C	Low power consumption
D	Better suited for RF amplification

26. - G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Select	Answer
A	Symbol 2
B	Symbol 4
C	Symbol 1
D	Symbol 5

27. - G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	To eliminate self-oscillations
B	To keep the carrier on frequency
C	To limit the modulation index
D	To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

28. - G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

Select	Answer
A	The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
B	Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
C	Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
D	All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

29. - G8A14

What is link margin?

Select	Answer
A	Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
B	Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
C	The opposite of fade margin
D	The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

30. - G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

Select	Answer
A	The arithmetic product
B	The sum and difference
C	The ratio
D	The average

31. - G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Select	Answer
A	Binary
B	Varicode
C	Viterbi
D	Volumetric

32. - G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

Select	Answer
A	High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
B	High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
C	High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D	There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

33. - G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

Select	Answer
A	It steadily decreases
B	It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
C	It steadily increases
D	It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end

34. - G9C11

What is a beta or hairpin match?

Select	Answer
A	A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
B	A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
C	A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
D	A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

35. - G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

Select	Answer
A	By varying the base loading inductance
B	By extending and retracting the whip
C	By varying its body capacitance
D	By deploying a capacitance hat

Figure G7-1