US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Select	Answer
A	Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
B	Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
C	Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
D	Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge

2. - E1A12

What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
B	They are not permitted above 54 MHz
C	None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
D	They are restricted to phone band segments

3. - E1B07

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

Select	Answer
A	Homeowners associations
B	FAA tower height limits
C	Use of wireless devices in vehicles
D	State and local zoning

4. - E1C10

What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	At least 53 dB below
B	At least 63 dB below
C	At least 43 dB below
D	At least 73 dB below

5. - E1D08

Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

Select	Answer
A	6 meters and 2 meters
B	2 meters and 1.25 meters
C	6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
D	2 meters

6. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Select	Answer
A	Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
B	Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
C	All these choices are correct
D	Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing

7. - E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Select	Answer
A	Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
B	Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C	Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
D	Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

8. - E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

Select	Answer
A	A log-periodic dipole array
B	An isotropic antenna
C	A linearly polarized antenna
D	A circularly polarized antenna

9. - E2B09

What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

Select	Answer
A	No other hardware is needed
B	A special front end limiter
C	A special IF converter
D	A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses

10. - E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

Select	Answer
A	In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
B	In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
C	In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
D	At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

11. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Use of special digital modes
C	Short transmissions with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
D	15-second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

12. - E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Select	Answer
A	PACTOR
B	RTTY
C	AMTOR
D	Hellschreiber

13. - E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

Select	Answer
A	A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
B	A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
C	The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
D	A fluttery irregular fading

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
B	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
D	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice

15. - E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

Select	Answer
A	The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
B	The ratio of x-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
C	UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
D	The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to x-ray flare levels

16. - E4A05

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

Select	Answer
A	It amplifies low-level signals for more accurate counting
B	It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
C	It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
D	It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit

17. - E4B03

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S12
B	S22
C	S11
D	S21

18. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	-155 dBm
B	-174 dBm
C	-148 dBm
D	-164 dBm

19. - E4D04

Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

Select	Answer
A	Utilizing a Class D final amplifier
B	Utilizing a Class C final amplifier
C	A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
D	A properly terminated circulator at the output of the repeater's transmitter

20. - E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Select	Answer
A	Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
B	FM signals can no longer be demodulated
C	Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
D	The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

21. - E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

Select	Answer
A	157.8 Hz
B	47.3 kHz
C	315.6 Hz
D	23.67 kHz

22. - E5B12

What is admittance?

Select	Answer
A	The turns ratio of a transformer
B	The inverse of impedance
C	The inverse of Q factor
D	The term for the gain of a field effect transistor

23. - E5C03

Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	A negative magnitude
B	A negative phase angle
C	A positive phase angle
D	A positive magnitude

24. - E5D05

What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

Select	Answer
A	1.73
B	0.577
C	0.5
D	0.866

25. - E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

Select	Answer
A	Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
B	Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
C	Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
D	Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

26. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

Select	Answer
A	As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
B	As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
C	As a rectifier in high current power supplies
D	As a constant voltage reference in a power supply

27. - E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

Select	Answer
A	Low-power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
B	Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
C	Logic devices that utilize ternary math
D	Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

28. - E6D07

What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

Select	Answer
A	Magnetizing current
B	Excitation current
C	Direct current
D	Stabilizing current

29. - E6E04

Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

Select	Answer
A	10 ohms
B	50 ohms
C	450 ohms
D	300 ohms

30. - E6F08

Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

Select	Answer
A	Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
B	Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
C	Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
D	Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit

31. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

Select	Answer
A	It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
B	It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
C	It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
D	It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state

32. - E7B15

What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	Use a resistor in series with the emitter
B	All these choices are correct
C	Neutralization
D	Select transistors with high beta

33. - E7C11

Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

Select	Answer
A	Noise factor
B	Shape factor
C	Passband ripple
D	Phase response

34. - E7D12

What is the dropout voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
B	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
C	Maximum output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
D	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation

35. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	To reduce impulse noise reception
B	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
C	To remove third-order distortion products
D	For higher efficiency

36. - E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

Select	Answer
A	Higher data rate
B	Double-precision math routines
C	Complex phasor representations
D	More taps

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
B	An echo caused by a long time delay
C	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
D	A reduction in high frequency response

38. - E7H01

What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?

Select	Answer
A	Pierce, Fenner and Beane
B	Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
C	Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
D	Taft, Hartley and Pierce

39. - E8A05

What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	An absorption wave meter
B	A true-RMS calculating meter
C	A D'Arsonval meter
D	A grid dip meter

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
B	The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
C	The type of modulation used by the transmitter
D	The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency

41. - E8C03

Why should phase-shifting of a PSK signal be done at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	To improve carrier suppression
B	To minimize bandwidth
C	To simplify modulation
D	All these choices are correct

42. - E8D03

How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

Select	Answer
A	A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
B	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
C	The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a pseudorandom sequence also used by the receiving station
D	If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

43. - E9A08

What is antenna bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The angle between the half-power radiation points
B	Antenna length divided by the number of elements
C	The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
D	The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

44. - E9B02

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

Select	Answer
A	36 dB
B	14 dB
C	18 dB
D	24 dB

45. - E9C06

What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic antenna?

Select	Answer
A	It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
B	It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
C	It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
D	It decreases the ground loss

46. - E9D12

Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

Select	Answer
A	A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground
B	An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
C	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
D	An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke

47. - E9E11

What is the primary purpose of phasing lines when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

Select	Answer
A	It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
B	It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
C	It creates a low-angle radiation pattern
D	It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands

48. - E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	The same as the input impedance to the generator
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Very high impedance
D	Very low impedance

49. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Beam headings and radiation patterns
B	Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
C	Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
D	Trigonometric functions

50. - E9H05

What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	It has no clearly defined null
C	It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
D	It has a bidirectional pattern

Figure E9-1