US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?

Select	Answer
A	The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
B	The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
C	Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
D	Microwaves are ionizing radiation

2. - E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
B	Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
C	The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
D	The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

3. - E1B07

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

Select	Answer
A	Use of wireless devices in vehicles
B	FAA tower height limits
C	State and local zoning
D	Homeowners associations

4. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Select	Answer
A	Under local control there is no control operator
B	Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
C	Under automatic control there is no control operator
D	Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point

5. - E1D05

What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

Select	Answer
A	A photocopy of the station license
B	A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
C	A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
D	All these choices are correct

6. - E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

Select	Answer
A	They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
B	They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
C	They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
D	They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

7. - E1F10

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Any licensed amateur operator
C	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

8. - E2A02

Which of the following occurs when a satellite is using an inverting linear transponder?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
C	Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa
D	Signal position in the band is reversed

9. - E2B05

Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

Select	Answer
A	The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
B	Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
C	Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
D	The vestigial sideband carries the audio information

10. - E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

Select	Answer
A	Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is,then your call sign three times
B	Send your full call sign once or twice
C	Send your full call sign and grid square
D	Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact

11. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

Select	Answer
A	Use of special digital modes
B	All these choices are correct
C	15-second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
D	Short transmissions with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

12. - E2E13

Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

Select	Answer
A	170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
B	AMTOR
C	PSK31
D	300 baud packet

13. - E3A09

Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

Select	Answer
A	28 MHz - 148 MHz
B	220 MHz - 450 MHz
C	10 MHz - 14 MHz
D	1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

Select	Answer
A	Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
B	Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
C	Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
D	Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice

15. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

Select	Answer
A	By approximately 15 percent of the distance
B	By approximately 50 percent of the distance
C	By approximately four times the distance
D	By approximately twice the distance

16. - E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the signal
B	A false, jittery low-frequency version of the signal is displayed
C	All signals will have a DC offset
D	Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid

17. - E4B04

Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

Select	Answer
A	S22
B	S11
C	S12
D	S21

18. - E4C05

What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

Select	Answer
A	The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
B	The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
C	The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
D	The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

19. - E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
B	Odd-order products overload the IF filters
C	Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
D	Odd-order products of two signals in the band of interest are also likely to be within the band

20. - E4E05

How can radio frequency interference from an AC motor be suppressed?

Select	Answer
A	By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
B	By installing a high-pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
C	By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
D	By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads

21. - E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
B	The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
C	The voltage and current are in phase
D	The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

22. - E5B02

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

Select	Answer
A	B
B	Y
C	G
D	X

23. - E5C03

Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

Select	Answer
A	A negative phase angle
B	A negative magnitude
C	A positive magnitude
D	A positive phase angle

24. - E5D07

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

Select	Answer
A	1.42 mW
B	704 W
C	355 W
D	252 W

25. - E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

Select	Answer
A	In high-power audio circuits
B	In microwave circuits
C	In very low-frequency RF circuits
D	In high-current rectifier circuits

26. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

Select	Answer
A	As a rectifier in high current power supplies
B	As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C	As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
D	As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector

27. - E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Select	Answer
A	It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
B	It is immune to electrostatic damage
C	Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
D	All these choices are correct

28. - E6D12

What is inductor saturation?

Select	Answer
A	The inductor windings are over-coupled
B	Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
C	The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
D	The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded

29. - E6E01

Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

Select	Answer
A	Lower junction voltage drop
B	Lower transconductance
C	Higher noise figures
D	Higher electron mobility

30. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Select	Answer
A	Silicon
B	Selenium
C	Copper oxide
D	Cadmium Sulfide

31. - E7A09

What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?

Select	Answer
A	It produces logic 1 at its output only if all inputs are logic 1
B	It produces logic 1 at its output if only one input is logic 1
C	It produces logic 0 at its output if only one input is logic 1
D	It produces logic 0 at its output only if all inputs are logic 0

32. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Select	Answer
A	Signal inversion
B	Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
C	Reduced intermodulation products
D	Increased overall intelligibility

33. - E7C11

Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

Select	Answer
A	Phase response
B	Shape factor
C	Noise factor
D	Passband ripple

34. - E7D12

What is the dropout voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
B	Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
C	Maximum output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
D	Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load

35. - E7E06

Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

Select	Answer
A	For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
B	For higher efficiency
C	To remove third-order distortion products
D	To reduce impulse noise reception

36. - E7F04

What is a common method of generating an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
B	Varying quartz crystal characteristics emulated in digital form
C	Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
D	A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

Select	Answer
A	Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
B	Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
C	An echo caused by a long time delay
D	A reduction in high frequency response

38. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
B	A direct digital synthesizer
C	A hybrid synthesizer
D	A phase-locked loop synthesizer

39. - E8A02

Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

Select	Answer
A	Successive approximation
B	Level shifting
C	Phase reversal
D	Harmonic regeneration

40. - E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

Select	Answer
A	Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
B	Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
C	Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
D	Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission

41. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Select	Answer
A	Special binary codes provide automatic correction
B	Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
C	If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
D	If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

42. - E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

Select	Answer
A	Excessive numbers of retries
B	Ground loops
C	Excessive transmit audio levels
D	Bit errors in the modem

43. - E9A08

What is antenna bandwidth?

Select	Answer
A	The angle between the half-power radiation points
B	The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
C	The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
D	Antenna length divided by the number of elements

44. - E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

Select	Answer
A	7.5 degrees
B	45 degrees
C	75 degrees
D	25 degrees

45. - E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

Select	Answer
A	A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
B	An end-fed dipole antenna
C	A dipole constructed from zip cord
D	An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications

46. - E9D11

Which of the following conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

Select	Answer
A	Stranded wire
B	Resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
C	Solid wire
D	Wide flat copper strap

47. - E9E01

What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

Select	Answer
A	The delta matching system
B	The omega matching system
C	The stub matching system
D	The gamma matching system

48. - E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Select	Answer
A	An inductive reactance
B	The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C	Infinite
D	A capacitive reactance

49. - E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna-length circles
B	Coaxial-length circles
C	Standing wave ratio circles
D	Radiation-pattern circles

50. - E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Select	Answer
A	By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
B	By increasing the number of turns and/or the area
C	By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
D	By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

Figure E9-2