US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Select	Answer
A	Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
B	Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
C	Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
D	Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits

2. - E1A06

Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

Select	Answer
A	At the lowest frequency of the channel
B	At the highest frequency of the channel
C	On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
D	At the center frequency of the channel

3. - E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
B	The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
C	The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
D	The amateur station must cease operation

4. - E1C05

When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Select	Answer
A	When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
B	Never
C	Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
D	When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

5. - E1D04

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

Select	Answer
A	The output power of the balloon transmitter
B	All these choices are correct
C	Call sign
D	The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator

6. - E1E04

Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Select	Answer
A	The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
B	The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
C	Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
D	The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

7. - E1F10

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Select	Answer
A	Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
B	Only Amateur Extra Class operators
C	Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D	Any licensed amateur operator

8. - E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

Select	Answer
A	FM and CW
B	All these choices are correct
C	SSB and SSTV
D	PSK and packet

9. - E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

Select	Answer
A	Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
B	A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
C	Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
D	Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

10. - E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

Select	Answer
A	An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
B	A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
C	A wireless router running custom firmware
D	A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem

11. - E2D11

Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate station location?

Select	Answer
A	Latitude and longitude
B	Time and frequency
C	Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
D	Polar coordinates

12. - E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

Select	Answer
A	MT63
B	RTTY
C	PSK31
D	PACTOR

13. - E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

Select	Answer
A	When the MUF is above 30 MHz
B	When the moon is full
C	When the moon is at apogee
D	When the moon is at perigee

14. - E3B06

Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

Select	Answer
A	20 meters
B	10 meters
C	6 meters
D	80 meters

15. - E3C07

Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

Select	Answer
A	Class X
B	Class A
C	Class M
D	Class B

16. - E4A10

Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?

Select	Answer
A	Logic analyzer
B	Network analyzer
C	Bit error rate tester
D	Modulation monitor

17. - E4B03

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

Select	Answer
A	S11
B	S21
C	S12
D	S22

18. - E4C11

Why can an attenuator be used to reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

Select	Answer
A	Signals are attenuated separately from the noise
B	Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
C	The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
D	The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals

19. - E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

Select	Answer
A	Odd-order products of two signals in the band of interest are also likely to be within the band
B	Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
C	Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
D	Odd-order products overload the IF filters

20. - E4E03

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Select	Answer
A	Signals that have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
B	Signals that are constant at all IF levels
C	Signals that appear across a wide bandwidth
D	Signals that appear at one IF but not another

21. - E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Select	Answer
A	Minimum
B	Maximum
C	L/R
D	R/L

22. - E5B10

What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Select	Answer
A	Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
B	Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
C	Voltage and current are in phase
D	Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

23. - E5C11

Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Select	Answer
A	Point 8
B	Point 3
C	Point 1
D	Point 7

24. - E5D03

What is microstrip?

Select	Answer
A	Miniature coax used for low power applications
B	Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
C	Lightweight transmission line made of common zip cord
D	Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits

25. - E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

Select	Answer
A	The change in collector current with respect to base current
B	The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
C	The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
D	The switching speed

26. - E6B08

Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

Select	Answer
A	PIN junction
B	Thermionic emission diode
C	Metal-semiconductor junction
D	Electrolytic rectifier

27. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

Select	Answer
A	The IC input can be damaged
B	The comparator changes its output state
C	The feedback loop becomes unstable
D	The comparator enters latch-up

28. - E6D01

Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?

Select	Answer
A	Harmonics and distortion could result
B	RF susceptance would increase
C	Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
D	Magnetic flux would increase with frequency

29. - E6E09

Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?

Select	Answer
A	TO-220
B	Surface mount
C	Axial lead
D	Radial lead

30. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

Select	Answer
A	A device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
B	A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
C	A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
D	A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

31. - E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

Select	Answer
A	8
B	2
C	1
D	4

32. - E7B13

Which of the following describes an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?

Select	Answer
A	A differential amplifier with both inputs fed to the emitter of the input transistor
B	An amplifier with a low impedance output that follows the base input voltage
C	An OR circuit with only one emitter used for output
D	A two-transistor amplifier with the emitters sharing a common bias resistor

33. - E7C05

Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

Select	Answer
A	An active LC filter
B	A passive op-amp filter
C	A Butterworth filter
D	A Chebyshev filter

34. - E7D14

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

Select	Answer
A	All these choices are correct
B	Provide a minimum load on the supply
C	Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
D	Equalize the voltage across each capacitor

35. - E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

Select	Answer
A	To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
B	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
C	To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
D	To produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

36. - E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

Select	Answer
A	More taps
B	Complex phasor representations
C	Double-precision math routines
D	Higher data rate

37. - E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

Select	Answer
A	100 ohms
B	1000 ohms
C	Very high
D	Very low

38. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

Select	Answer
A	A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
B	A phase-locked loop synthesizer
C	A direct digital synthesizer
D	A hybrid synthesizer

39. - E8A05

What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

Select	Answer
A	An absorption wave meter
B	A grid dip meter
C	A true-RMS calculating meter
D	A D'Arsonval meter

40. - E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

Select	Answer
A	The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
B	The type of modulation used by the transmitter
C	The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
D	The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency

41. - E8C03

Why should phase-shifting of a PSK signal be done at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

Select	Answer
A	To improve carrier suppression
B	To minimize bandwidth
C	To simplify modulation
D	All these choices are correct

42. - E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Select	Answer
A	Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
B	Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
C	Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
D	Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

43. - E9A06

What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

Select	Answer
A	2000 watts
B	300 watts
C	317 watts
D	126 watts

44. - E9B10

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

Select	Answer
A	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
B	A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
C	A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
D	A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source

45. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

Select	Answer
A	The horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
B	The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
C	The horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
D	The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction

46. - E9D11

Which of the following conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

Select	Answer
A	Solid wire
B	Resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
C	Stranded wire
D	Wide flat copper strap

47. - E9E05

How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

Select	Answer
A	The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
B	The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
C	The driven element reactance must be inductive
D	The driven element reactance must be capacitive

48. - E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

Select	Answer
A	The index of shielding for coaxial cable
B	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
C	The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D	The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance

49. - E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Select	Answer
A	Antenna radiation pattern
B	Impedance along transmission lines
C	Radiation resistance
D	Radio propagation

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

Select	Answer
A	To compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
B	To narrow the receiver bandwidth
C	To prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls
D	To increase receiver sensitivity

Figure E5-1