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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A11

Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

SelectAnswer
AHearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
BBlood clotting from the intense magnetic field
CLocalized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
DIngestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

2. - E1A04

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
ANo, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
BYes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
CNo, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
DYes, because the DX station initiated the contact

3. - E1B02

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
A20 kHz
B3 kHz
C15 kHz
D10 kHz

4. - E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

SelectAnswer
A30 seconds
B5 minutes
C10 minutes
D3 minutes

5. - E1D05

What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

SelectAnswer
AA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
BAll these choices are correct
CA label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
DA photocopy of the station license

6. - E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

SelectAnswer
AA person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
BAn organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate, prepare, and administer amateur operator license examinations
CA person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
DThe person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

7. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

SelectAnswer
ANone, they must obtain a U.S. license
BThe operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Amateur Extra Class license privileges
CAll privileges of the Amateur Extra Class license
DFull privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra Class license, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands

8. - E2A02

Which of the following occurs when a satellite is using an inverting linear transponder?

SelectAnswer
AUpper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa
BSignal position in the band is reversed
CDoppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
DAll these choices are correct

9. - E2B08

What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70 cm band?

SelectAnswer
ATransmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
BUsing USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
CUsing converted satellite TV dishes
DTransmitting on channels shared with cable TV

10. - E2C12

What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

SelectAnswer
AForward error correction and Viterbi codes
BDiscovery and link establishment protocols
CCustom code plugs for the local trunking systems
DActing as store-and-forward digipeaters

11. - E2D02

Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BUse of special digital modes
CShort transmissions with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
D15-second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

12. - E2E03

How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?

SelectAnswer
ABy exchanging ACK/NAK packets
BIt depends on the lunar phase
CAlternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals
DStations take turns on alternate days

13. - E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

SelectAnswer
ARTTY
BCW
CFM
DSSB

14. - E3B03

What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

SelectAnswer
ALate at night
BNoon
CMorning
DAfternoon or early evening

15. - E3C15

What might be indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

SelectAnswer
AIncreased transequatorial propagation is likely
BLong-path propagation is likely
CA temperature inversion has occurred
DA solar flare has occurred

16. - E4A02

Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

SelectAnswer
ASWR and time
BSWR and frequency
CRF amplitude and time
DRF amplitude and frequency

17. - E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

SelectAnswer
ARelative quality of the data
BThe relative time between measurements
CThe port or ports at which measurements are made
DFrequency order of the measurements

18. - E4C06

A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

SelectAnswer
A-155 dBm
B-174 dBm
C-164 dBm
D-148 dBm

19. - E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
D146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz

20. - E4E01

What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

SelectAnswer
AAny nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
BRemoval of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
CReceived CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
DRinging in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

21. - E5A05

What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

SelectAnswer
AIt has no effect on impedance matching
BMatching range is increased
CMatching bandwidth is decreased
DMatching bandwidth is increased

22. - E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

23. - E5C12

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

SelectAnswer
APoint 7
BPoint 1
CPoint 3
DPoint 8

24. - E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

SelectAnswer
ATo maintain component lifetime
BTo avoid unwanted inductive reactance
CAll these choices are correct
DTo increase the thermal time constant

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

SelectAnswer
AThey are both high impedance
BAn FET has lower input impedance
CAn FET has higher input impedance
DThey are both low impedance

26. - E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

SelectAnswer
AAs a constant voltage reference in a power supply
BAs a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
CAs a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
DAs a rectifier in high current power supplies

27. - E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

SelectAnswer
AThe input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
BThe input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
CLarge bypass capacitance is inherent
DBandwidth is very limited

28. - E6D09

What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AElectrolytic capacitors
BSteel-core toroids
CButterworth filters
DFerrite beads

29. - E6E06

What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

SelectAnswer
AControlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
BPlate current that is controlled by a control grid
CThe ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
DNearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

30. - E6F02

What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

SelectAnswer
AIt increases
BIt stays the same
CIt becomes unstable
DIt decreases

31. - E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

SelectAnswer
AIt produces logic 1 at its output if any or all inputs are logic 1
BIt produces logic 0 at its output if all inputs are logic 1
CIt only produces logic 0 at its output when all inputs are logic 1
DIt produces logic 1 at its output if all inputs are logic 0

32. - E7B01

For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull Class AB amplifier conduct?

SelectAnswer
AExactly 180 degrees
BThe entire cycle
CMore than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
DLess than 180 degrees

33. - E7C09

What is a crystal lattice filter?

SelectAnswer
AA filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
BA filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
CAn audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
DA power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals

34. - E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

SelectAnswer
AIt controls the current supplied to the load
BIt provides D1 with current
CIt provides a constant load for the voltage source
DIt provides negative feedback to improve regulation

35. - E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
ATwo and four times the original frequency
B1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
CThe two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
DThe square root of the product of input frequencies

36. - E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling SDR receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

SelectAnswer
AReference voltage level and sample width in bits
BSample clock phase noise
CMissing codes and jitter
DData storage transfer rate

37. - E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

SelectAnswer
A2.3 volts
B-2.3 volts
C-0.23 volts
D0.23 volts

38. - E7H06

Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

SelectAnswer
AArmstrong and deForest
BColpitts and Hartley
CNegative feedback and balanced feedback
DPierce and Zener

39. - E8A05

What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

SelectAnswer
AA true-RMS calculating meter
BAn absorption wave meter
CA grid dip meter
DA D'Arsonval meter

40. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

SelectAnswer
A3
B1/3
C6000
D2000

41. - E8C09

Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

SelectAnswer
AExcess 3 code
BGray code
CExtended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
DBinary Coded Decimal Code

42. - E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

SelectAnswer
AThe generation of RF harmonics
BLimits data speed
CThe generation of key clicks
DMore difficult to copy

43. - E9A03

What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
BThe combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
CThe value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
DThe specific impedance of the antenna

44. - E9B08

What is the far field of an antenna?

SelectAnswer
AThe region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
BThe region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
CThe region where radiated field strengths are constant
DThe region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted

45. - E9C09

Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
BA wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with aÿ4:1 balun
CA phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
DA multi-band trap antenna

46. - E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

SelectAnswer
A3 dB
B6 dB
C4 dB
D2 dB

47. - E9E03

What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

SelectAnswer
AThe omega match
BThe stub match
CThe gamma match
DThe delta match

48. - E9F07

How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

SelectAnswer
AHigher SWR
BSmaller reflection coefficient
CLower velocity factor
DLower loss

49. - E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ATrigonometric functions
BSatellite azimuth and elevation bearings
CBeam headings and radiation patterns
DImpedance and SWR values in transmission lines

50. - E9H07

Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

SelectAnswer
ATo increase receiver sensitivity
BTo narrow the receiver bandwidth
CTo compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
DTo prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls

Figure E5-1

Figure E7-2

Figure E7-3