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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A05

What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?

SelectAnswer
AThe high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
BThe extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
CMicrowaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
DMicrowaves are ionizing radiation

2. - E1A11

Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

SelectAnswer
AOnly General Class or higher amateur licenses
BAny amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
CAny FCC-issued amateur license
DAn unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

3. - E1B02

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

SelectAnswer
A20 kHz
B10 kHz
C3 kHz
D15 kHz

4. - E1C02

Which of the following types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

SelectAnswer
ACommunications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
BBusiness-related messages for non-profit organizations
CAll these choices are correct
DMessages intended for users of the maritime satellite service

5. - E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

SelectAnswer
AOnly those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
BAny amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
COnly those of Amateur Extra Class operators
DAny amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

6. - E1E05

What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?

SelectAnswer
AMinimum passing score of 77%
BMinimum passing score of 80%
CMinimum passing score of 70%
DMinimum passing score of 74%

7. - E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

SelectAnswer
AWhen transmitting international third-party communications
BWhen the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
CWhen neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
DWhen the total money involved does not exceed $25

8. - E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

SelectAnswer
AThe polarization of uplink and downlink signals
BThe location of the ground control station
CPower limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
DThe uplink and downlink frequency ranges

9. - E2B12

What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

SelectAnswer
ASpecific tone amplitudes
BSpecific tone frequencies
CElapsed time
DA two-tone signal

10. - E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

SelectAnswer
ATo relay calls to and from a DX station
BTo run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
CTo allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
DTo handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station

11. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

SelectAnswer
ATime synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
BHigh-speed CW identification to avoid fading
CJudging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
DStoring and forwarding digital messages

12. - E2E02

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

SelectAnswer
AForward Error Correction
BFatal Error Correction
CFinal Error Correction
DFirst Error Correction

13. - E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

SelectAnswer
ARTTY
BSSB
CFM
DCW

14. - E3B10

Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

SelectAnswer
ASignals travel faster along ionospheric chords
BAtmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
CThe MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
DThe signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector

15. - E3C06

By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

SelectAnswer
ABy approximately 15 percent of the distance
BBy approximately twice the distance
CBy approximately four times the distance
DBy approximately 50 percent of the distance

16. - E4A05

What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

SelectAnswer
AIt divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
BIt multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
CIt amplifies low-level signals for more accurate counting
DIt prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit

17. - E4B03

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

SelectAnswer
AS22
BS11
CS12
DS21

18. - E4C12

Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's dynamic range?

SelectAnswer
ARAM speed used for data storage
BAnalog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
CAnti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
DCPU register width in bits

19. - E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
B146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
C146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
D146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz

20. - E4E05

How can radio frequency interference from an AC motor be suppressed?

SelectAnswer
ABy installing a high-pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
BBy installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
CBy installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
DBy using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

21. - E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

SelectAnswer
AReactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
BResistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
CReactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
DReactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance

22. - E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

SelectAnswer
A76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

23. - E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

SelectAnswer
APolar coordinates
BMaidenhead grid
CElliptical coordinates
DFaraday grid

24. - E5D14

What is reactive power?

SelectAnswer
APower lost because of capacitor leakage
BPower consumed in circuit Q
CWattless, nonproductive power
DPower consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

25. - E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

SelectAnswer
AAn FET has higher input impedance
BAn FET has lower input impedance
CThey are both low impedance
DThey are both high impedance

26. - E6B07

What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

SelectAnswer
AInsufficient forward voltage
BExcessive inverse voltage
CExcessive junction temperature
DCharge carrier depletion

27. - E6C11

In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

SelectAnswer
A6
B2
C4
D5

28. - E6D13

What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

SelectAnswer
AInductive kickback
BThe skin effect
CNon-linear core hysteresis
DInter-turn capacitance

29. - E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

SelectAnswer
ATwo chips in each package (Dual In Package)
BPackage mounts in a direct inverted position
CA total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
DLow leakage doubly insulated package

30. - E6F10

What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

SelectAnswer
ACopper oxide
BSelenium
CCadmium Sulfide
DSilicon

31. - E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

SelectAnswer
AA multiplexer
BAn XOR gate
CAn OR gate
DA flip-flop

32. - E7B15

What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BSelect transistors with high beta
CNeutralization
DUse a resistor in series with the emitter

33. - E7C07

Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

SelectAnswer
AA Phase Inverter Load network
BA matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
CA Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
DA network with only three discrete parts

34. - E7D12

What is the dropout voltage of an analog voltage regulator?

SelectAnswer
AMaximum output voltage drops when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
BMinimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
CMinimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
DMaximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load

35. - E7E07

What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

SelectAnswer
AThe unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
BThe basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
CThe frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
DThe lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers

36. - E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

SelectAnswer
ASample rate
BProcessor latency
CSample clock phase noise
DSample width in bits

37. - E7G02

What is ringing in a filter?

SelectAnswer
AUndesired oscillations added to the desired signal
BAn echo caused by a long time delay
CA reduction in high frequency response
DPartial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

38. - E7H07

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

SelectAnswer
AMechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
BUse NP0 capacitors
CReduce noise on the oscillator's power supply
DIncrease the bias voltage

39. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

SelectAnswer
AVery high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
BImmunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
CAll these choices are correct
DVery low power consumption decreases frequency drift

40. - E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

SelectAnswer
A0.3
B3
C1000
D3000

41. - E8C05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

SelectAnswer
A26 Hz
B52 Hz
C104 Hz
D13 Hz

42. - E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

SelectAnswer
AGround loops
BBit errors in the modem
CExcessive numbers of retries
DExcessive transmit audio levels

43. - E9A01

What is an isotropic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AA horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas
BA theoretical, omnidirectional antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
CA grounded antenna used to measure Earth conductivity
DA spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth

44. - E9B01

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

SelectAnswer
A75 degrees
B30 degrees
C25 degrees
D50 degrees

45. - E9C14

How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

SelectAnswer
AThe main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
BThe horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
CThe main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
DThe horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction

46. - E9D06

What happens to the SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
BIt is increased
CIt is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
DIt is decreased

47. - E9E10

Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

SelectAnswer
AInsert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
BConnect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
CConnect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
DInsert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

48. - E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

SelectAnswer
AThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line
BZero
CAn inductive reactance
DA capacitive reactance

49. - E9G05

Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

SelectAnswer
ADetermine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
BDetermine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
CDetermine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
DDetermine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
ALow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
BAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
CThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
DAll these choices are correct

Figure E6-3

Figure E9-1