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US Amateur Radio - Amateur Extra (Element 4, 2020-2024) Practice Test

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1. - E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

SelectAnswer
AReduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
BReduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
CReduce received noise
DLightning protection

2. - E1A04

With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
ANo, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
BNo, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
CYes, because the DX station initiated the contact
DYes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment

3. - E1B04

What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

SelectAnswer
AAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
BA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
CA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
DA letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency

4. - E1C03

How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

SelectAnswer
AUnder automatic control there is no control operator
BUnder local control there is no control operator
CUnder automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
DUnder local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

5. - E1D09

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

SelectAnswer
A70 cm and 33 cm
B70 cm and 13 cm
C33 cm and 13 cm
D70 cm only

6. - E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

SelectAnswer
AThree VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
BAll these choices are correct
CPhotocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
DIssue the examinee the new or upgrade license

7. - E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

SelectAnswer
AFull privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra Class license, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
BThe operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Amateur Extra Class license privileges
CNone, they must obtain a U.S. license
DAll privileges of the Amateur Extra Class license

8. - E2A04

What is meant by the term mode? as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

SelectAnswer
AThe satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
BWhether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
CThe satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
DWhether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

9. - E2B01

How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

SelectAnswer
A60
B90
C30
D120

10. - E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

SelectAnswer
A33 centimeters
B30 meters
C6 meters
D2 meters

11. - E2D06

Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

SelectAnswer
AJudging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
BTime synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
CHigh-speed CW identification to avoid fading
DStoring and forwarding digital messages

12. - E2E04

What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

SelectAnswer
AThe receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
BSelective fading has occurred
CThe mark and space signal have been inverted
DOne of the signal filters is saturated

13. - E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

SelectAnswer
A10 miles to 50 miles
B2500 miles
C1200 miles
D100 miles to 300 miles

14. - E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?

SelectAnswer
AAround the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
BAround the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
CAround the solstices, especially the winter solstice
DAround the solstices, especially the summer solstice

15. - E3C14

Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

SelectAnswer
AD-region skip
BE-region skip
CDownward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
DDue to the Doppler effect

16. - E4A09

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

SelectAnswer
AKeep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
BNever use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
CAll these choices are correct
DNever use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

17. - E4B04

Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

SelectAnswer
AS22
BS12
CS21
DS11

18. - E4C03

What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

SelectAnswer
AFrequency discrimination
BCapture effect
CCross-modulation interference
DDesensitization

19. - E4D06

What is the term for spurious signals generated by the combination of two or more signals in a non-linear device or circuit?

SelectAnswer
AAdjacent channel interference
BAmplifier desensitization
CNeutralization
DIntermodulation

20. - E4E10

What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

SelectAnswer
AArcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
BAll these choices are correct
CA defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
DA malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

21. - E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

SelectAnswer
AInternal voltages increase
BParasitic effects are minimized
CFewer components are needed for the same performance
DPhase shift can become uncontrolled

22. - E5B03

How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

SelectAnswer
ATake the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle
BSquare the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
CTake the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
DTake the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle

23. - E5C06

What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

SelectAnswer
A25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
B50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
C25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
D50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance

24. - E5D07

How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?

SelectAnswer
A252 W
B1.42 mW
C355 W
D704 W

25. - E6A11

In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

SelectAnswer
A6
B3
C1
D2

26. - E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

SelectAnswer
AA constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
BA negative resistance region
CA constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
DAn internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

27. - E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

SelectAnswer
AThe comparator changes its output state
BThe IC input can be damaged
CThe comparator enters latch-up
DThe feedback loop becomes unstable

28. - E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

SelectAnswer
APermeability
BThermal impedance
CReactivity
DResistance

29. - E6E03

Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

SelectAnswer
AGallium nitride
BSilicon dioxide
CSilicon nitride
DSilicon

30. - E6F05

Which describes an optical shaft encoder?

SelectAnswer
AA device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
BA device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
CA digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
DA device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

31. - E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

SelectAnswer
AIt maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
BIt produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
CIt switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns to its original state after a set time
DIt stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state

32. - E7B07

Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

SelectAnswer
AIncreased overall intelligibility
BSignal inversion
CSignal distortion and excessive bandwidth
DReduced intermodulation products

33. - E7C12

What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

SelectAnswer
APi-networks provide balanced input and output
BL-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
CThe Q of Pi-networks can be controlled
DPi-networks are more stable

34. - E7D15

What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

SelectAnswer
ATo allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
BTo allow for remote control of the power supply
CTo compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
DTo provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications

35. - E7E09

What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

SelectAnswer
AMixer blanking occurs
BSpurious mixer products are generated
CAutomatic limiting occurs
DA beat frequency is generated

36. - E7F09

Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?

SelectAnswer
AIt removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
BIt notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
CIt peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
DIt removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration

37. - E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

SelectAnswer
A28
B0.07
C7
D14

38. - E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

SelectAnswer
AA diode-switching matrix synthesizer
BA direct digital synthesizer
CA hybrid synthesizer
DA phase-locked loop synthesizer

39. - E8A08

Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BVery high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
CImmunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
DVery low power consumption decreases frequency drift

40. - E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

SelectAnswer
A1/3
B3
C6000
D2000

41. - E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

SelectAnswer
AIf errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
BSpecial binary codes provide automatic correction
CSpecial polynomial codes provide automatic correction
DIf errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

42. - E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

SelectAnswer
APhase compandored spread spectrum
BFrequency hopping
CDirect sequence
DBinary phase-shift keying

43. - E9A10

Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
AAll these choices are correct
BInstalling a radial system
CIsolating the coax shield from ground
DShortening the radiating element

44. - E9B10

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

SelectAnswer
AA wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
BA wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
CA wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
DA wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

45. - E9C06

What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic antenna?

SelectAnswer
AIt decreases the ground loss
BIt reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
CIt changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
DIt changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional

46. - E9D07

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

SelectAnswer
ALower Q
BGreater structural strength
CHigher losses
DImproved radiation efficiency

47. - E9E09

Which of the following is used to shunt-feed a grounded tower at its base?

SelectAnswer
AGamma match
BHairpin match
CAll these choices are correct
DDouble-bazooka match

48. - E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

SelectAnswer
A13.3 meters
B10.6 meters
C7.0 meters
D8.5 meters

49. - E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

SelectAnswer
AThe resistance axis
BThe current axis
CThe voltage axis
DThe reactance axis

50. - E9H02

Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

SelectAnswer
AThey must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
BAll these choices are correct
CAtmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
DLow loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance

Figure E6-1

Figure E7-3

Figure E9-3